Literatura Inglesa I - AV SIMULADO ESTACIO

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What is correct to claim about the English Reformation? 
I. it refused the existence of purgatory 
II. it debated questions of theology concerning free will and grace 
III. it questioned the sacraments 
None of the above 
Only II and III are true 
 I, II and III are true 
Only I and II are true 
Only I and III are true 
Respondido em 19/11/2021 23:57:38
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: I, II and III are true 
Acerto: 1,0 / 1,0
Why did Henry VIII start the English Reformation? 
because he wanted a divorce from Anne Boleyn and the Pope would not grant it. 
because he refused the title the Defender of the Faith given by the Pope. 
because he did not want to be Catholic anymore. 
 because he wanted a divorce from Catherine of Aragon and the Pope would not grant it. 
because Anne Boleyn was pregnant. 
Respondido em 19/11/2021 23:58:22
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: because he wanted a divorce from Catherine of Aragon and the Pope would not grant it. 
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The Elizabethan Age (or Golden Age) was a period in which music, art and literature thrived. Choose the
alternative which contains representatives of this flowering of the arts: 
Edmund Spenser, John Milton and John Donne 
Christopher Marlowe, Edmund Spenser and Geoffrey Chaucer 
 William Shakespeare, Christopher Marlowe and Edmund Spenser 
Thomas Kyd, John Milton and William Shakespeare 
William Shakespeare, Thomas Kyd and Geoffrey Chaucer 
Respondido em 19/11/2021 23:59:08
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: William Shakespeare, Christopher Marlowe and Edmund Spenser 
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The immediacy and concreteness of drama and the fact that it forces the spectator to interpret what is
happening in front of him on a multitude of levels, compelling him to decide whether the tone of voice of the
character was friendly or menacing or sarcastic, means that drama has all the qualities of the real world, the
real situations we meet in life - but with one very decisive difference: in life the situations we are confronted
with are real; in the theatre - or in the other forms of drama (radio, TV, the cinema) - they are merely acted,
they are make-believe, play. (ESSLIN, 1976, p. 19; author's stress)
Source: ESSLIN, Martin. An Anatomy of Drama. New York: Hill and Wang, 1996.
According to the text above, the drama is ¿
... a copycat of reality exactly as it is experienced in our everyday life conflicts and situations.
...an absolute denial of reality as such towards a surrealist framework of entertainment.
...a play between text and actors unattached to the reality of life situations surrounding it.
...highly depending on the realness of the characters in scene for it to work properly.
 ...a play between audience and dramatic production aiming at a simulacrum of the situations we meet in
life.
Respondido em 19/11/2021 23:59:48
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: ...a play between audience and dramatic production aiming at a simulacrum of the situations
we meet in life.
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The next step on the development [of theater] takes place when the members of various guilds, who really liked
acting in the cycles, decided that they wanted to do theater and, abandoned their original crafts, organized
themselves into small itinerant groups, that walked around looking for audiences. These small groups faced a
very serious problem, because, abandoning the realm of religious activity, they were prohibited to make their
plays based on biblical tropes [or about the life of Saints]. The positive result of this prohibition is that it
determined the emergence of original authors. (HELIODORA, 2015, p. 17)
Source: (adapted from) HELIODORA, Bárbara. ''Dramaturgia Elizabetana: Uma Introdução''. In: Dramaturgia
Elizabetana. São Paulo: Perspectiva, 2015.
Identify the option that correctly explains how the first morality plays happened to come into England's
theatrical scene.
Morality plays always existed throughout England, but they got to the city only after Elizabeth I was
crowned.
Morality plays came to be only after atheism became a popular practice in Renaissance England.
 Morality plays started to be written after a group of men left their various guilds to live theater as their
craft.
Morality plays were part of a circuit of biblical episodes which aimed at moralizing its audience by
enacting testimonies of the Church¿s beliefs.
Morality plays were prohibited by the Crown because they enacted Vice and Virtue as insurrectionists.
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:02:11
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: Morality plays started to be written after a group of men left their various guilds to live
theater as their craft.
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[Regarding the cycles], each guild was responsible for representing just one episode, staged on top of a wheel
cart and, on the day of [Corpus Christi], following the sequence of the Bible, these carts enacted the whole
collection of mysteries, from Genesis to Judgement Day (...). It is obvious that on top of these carts it was not
possible to stage big scenarios, so that this scenic tradition has two important consequences for the Elizabethan
Theater: the absence of scenarios, with a common scenic space for every action in play, and the challenge to
create visual images through their words to compensate for this absence of scenarios. (HELIODORA, 2015,
p.16-17)
Source: (adapted from) HELIODORA, Bárbara. ''Dramaturgia Elizabetana: Uma Introdução''. In: Dramaturgia
Elizabetana. São Paulo: Perspectiva, 2015.
I. Elizabethan theater was known for its lack of props and scenarios on the stage.
BECAUSE
II. They had a lot of problems with rats at Southbank, which usually destroyed all the props and clothing of the
plays.
Regarding these affirmatives, mark the correct option.
Affirmatives I and II are true, but II is not a correct justification of I.
 Affirmative I is true, and II is false.
Affirmatives I and II are false.
Affirmatives I and II are true, II is a correct justification of I.
Affirmative I is false, and II is true.
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:04:02
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: Affirmative I is true, and II is false.
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As you have come to realize in the previous modules, labeling the discourse genres of Shakespearean plays
might be a rather complex task. Bearing this in mind, which alternative better accounts for the use of such
terminologies in the Bald's legacy?
In order to break the audience's expectation in the play King Lear, the jester of such plot is entirely
dreary and melancholic.
Romeo and Juliet is mainly a comedy, being arranged as such in the First Folio.
Midnight Summer's Dream is one of the few Shakespearean plays which conform to the characteristics
of one single discourse genre, with no traces of tragedies whatsoever.
The Merchant of Venice has been labeled in the First Folio as one of the first Shakespearean tragedies.
 The Bard has probably used the mixture of different discourse genres to raise the audiences'
expectations and contextualize the dramatis personae's social spheres.
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:06:21
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: The Bard has probably used the mixture of different discourse genres to raise the audiences'
expectations and contextualize the dramatis personae's social spheres.
Acerto: 1,0 / 1,0
As you have studied, the figures of ''constables'' were present in Shakespearean comedies such as Love's
Labour's Lost, Much Ado About Nothing and Measure for Measure. Read the statements and label them as either
True (T) or False (F).
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 Questão8a
(1) The comedy lines revolving around their battles of wit confirms the constables' depiction as wise characters.
(2) The humorous tone of these characters intended to mock repressive military authorities who usually
belonged to prestigious and wealthy classes of Elizabethan England.(3) Constables' financial rewards in real life were not commensurate with their manifold duties.
(1) T/ (2) T/ (3) T
(1) T/ (2) F/ (3) F
(1) F/ (2 )T/ (3) T
 (1) T/ (2) F/ (3) T
(1) F (2) F/ (3) T
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:07:03
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: (1) T/ (2) F/ (3) T
Acerto: 1,0 / 1,0
Many of the love poems to the young man can be seen to have a gendered subject only because of their
placement in the sequence, and the most famous ones, such as 18, 'Shall I compare thee to a summer's day?',
regularly appear in modern anthologies with no indication that the addressee is not a woman. There are often
elements in the poems themselves that preclude such a reading, but to recognize them depends, again, on a
knowledge of the book as a whole. The Shakespeare of the Sonnets does not talk about women in this way:
Shall I compare thee to the summer's day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate.
The lovely and temperate are, throughout the volume, masculine attributes.
Source: ORGEL, Stephen. ''Introduction''. In: SHAKESPEARE, William. The Sonnets. EVANS, G. Blakemore (ed.).
Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 2006.
Considering the text above, what are the differences between placing Shakespeare's sonnets inside the
sequence and reading them independently?
Reading Shakespeare's sonnets as a whole necessarily demands lots of criticism to support your
findings.
Reading Shakespeare's sonnets individually allows teachers to discover pedagogical applications for
these poems.
Reading Shakespeare's sonnets individually allows the reader to expand the boundaries of the singular
Shakespearean sonnet form.
Reading Shakespeare's sonnets individually allows the reader to discover specific features of each
sonnet.
 Reading Shakespeare's sonnets as a whole also means knowing the sonneteer's language patterns as a
whole.
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:08:17
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: Reading Shakespeare's sonnets as a whole also means knowing the sonneteer's language
patterns as a whole.
Acerto: 1,0 / 1,0
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 Questão10a
Thomas Thorpe¿s edition of Shakespeare¿s Sonnets, published in 1609.
Mark the alternative which explains correctly the problems with Thomas Thorpe¿s 1609 edition claiming that
Shakespeare¿s sonnets were ''Never before Imprinted''.
 Before 1609, there are registers of the sonnets circulating through London - mostly on private groups, but some
of them already in manuscript.
Only after 1609, has Shakespeare written any of his sonnets and long narrative poems.
Before 1609, Shakespeare was exclusively a playwright for the King's Men.
Only after 1609 the real Shakespearean sonnets were published with the author's authorization.
Before 1609, there were already several sonnets inscribed on Shakespeare's plays.
Respondido em 20/11/2021 00:09:23
Explicação:
A resposta certa é: Before 1609, there are registers of the sonnets circulating through London - mostly on private groups,
but some of them already in manuscript.