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Full version: 200-301 Exam Dumps Questions
1.Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
A. firewall
B. switch
C. access point
D. wireless controller
Answer: A
2.A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time.
This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
A. collision
B. CRC
C. runt
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D. late collision
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/interfaces-modules/port-adapters/12768-eth-
collisions.html
3.An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server
connectivity fails.
Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
4.What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
A. Increase the available throughput on the link.
B. Increase security by encrypting management frames
C. Allow for stateful failover between WLCs
D. Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Link Aggregation Group (LAG) is a feature that allows you to bundle multiple physical Ethernet links
into a single logical link, and is used to increase the available throughput on the link. LAG is
supported on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) and the connected switch ports [1], and can
be used to provide greater bandwidth and increased redundancy. It also enables the connected
switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations, such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and Hot
Standby Router Protocol (HSRP).
5.Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
A. To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices
B. To centralize device information storage
C. To implement centralized user account management
D. To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network
Answer: A
6.Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
A. virtual routing and forwarding
B. network port ID visualization
C. virtual device contexts
D. server visualization
Answer: D
7. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum
threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop
probability for that type of traffic.
8.All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
9.What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a
southbound API?
A. OpenFlow
B. Java
C. REST
D. XML
Answer: A
10.Refer to the Exhibit.
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An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also
account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and
host count.
Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?
A. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252
B. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248
C. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0
D. Switch(config)#interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128
Answer: B
11.A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a
routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet.
Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A. interface vlan 2000
ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64
B. interface vlan 2000
Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64
C. interface vlan 2000
ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64
D. interface vlan 2000
ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64
Answer: B
12.An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk
link.
Which command should be used?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
C. switchport mode trunk
D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
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Answer: B
13.Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the
Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. sniffer
B. mesh
C. flex connect
D. local
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-
guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html
14.Refer to the exhibit.
An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.
Which configuration must be used?
A)
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B)
C)
D)
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A. Option
B. Option
C. Option
D. Option
Answer: C
15.Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
A. learning
B. forwarding
C. blocking
D. listening
Answer: B
16.Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web
traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet
with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded.
Which routing table entry does the router use?
A. 192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2
B. 192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3
C. 192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4
D. 192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5
Answer: B
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17.Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or
DNS?
A. FF00:1/12
B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128
C. 2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64
D. FE80::1/10
Answer: A
18.Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to
operate? (Choose two)
A. OSPF area
B. OSPF MD5 authentication key
C. iPv6 address
D. OSPf process ID
E. OSPf stub flag
Answer: AD
19. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1
Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
20.A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate
layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch.
What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
A. 802.1q trunks
B. Cisco vPC
C. LLDP
D. LACP
Answer: D
21.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
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Answer:
22.A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is
to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
A. R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#cryptokey generate ec keysize 2048
B. R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
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C . R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key generate ec keysize 1024
D. R1#enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com
R1(config)#crypto key encrypt rsa name myKey
Answer: C
23. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1
networks.
24.What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)
A. It needs a high MTU between sites.
B. It has a high implementation cost.
C. It must have point-to-point communication.
D. It requires complex configuration.
E. It works only with BGP between sites.
Answer: B, D
25.What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
A. Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing
B. Sends the default route to the hosts on a network
C. ensures a loop-free physical topology
D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers
Answer: D
Explanation:
FHRP is layer 3 protocol whose purpose is to protect the default gateway by offering redundancy of
the gateway in a subnet. This is achieved by allowing two or more routers to provide a backup for the
first-hop IP router address. If a failure of an active router occurs, the backup router will take over the
address. The routers negotiate their roles (Active/Standby) with each other by multicast hello
messages to share the VIP (virtual IP address) between the FHRP routers. The terms Active/Standby
vary between the different types of FHRP. The active router will act as the default gateway and the
standby router acts as a backup the active router.
26.DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
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Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right
Answer:
27.How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ
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in regards to deployment?
A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus
device management
B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco
DNA Center device management
C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional
campus device management options
D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more
quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management
Answer: A
28.Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the
network? (Choose two.)
A. asynchronous routing
B. single-homed branches
C. dual-homed branches
D. static routing
E. dynamic routing
Answer: A, C
29.When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum
number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 18
Answer: B
30.A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss
Which command sequence must the engineer configured?
A. enable secret priv4t3p4ss
!
line con 0
password login p4ssword1
!
line vty 0 15
password login s3cr3t2
login
B. enable secret privilege 15 priv4t3p4ss
!
line con 0
password p4ssword1
login
!
line vty 0 15 password s3cr3t2
login
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C. enable secret priv4t3p4ss
!
line con 0
password p4ssword1
login
!
line vty 0 15
password s3cr3t2
login
D. enable secret priv4t3p4ss
!
line con 0
Answer: C
31.Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every
minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes.
Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60
Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 180
B. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 60
Switch2(config)#lldp tlv-select 180
C. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1
Switch2(config)#lldp holdtime 3
D. Switch2(config)#lldp timer 1
Switch2(config)#lldp tlv-select 3
Answer: A
32.Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose
two. )
A. The device Is assigned to the Global site.
B. The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.
C. The device is placed into the Provisioned state.
D. The device is placed into the Managed state.
E. The device is assigned to the Local site.
Answer: AB
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33.Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network.
The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new
server.
Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
A. R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1
B. R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0
C. R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15
D. R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5
Answer: C
34.CORRECT TEXT
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IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any
changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops
when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static.
Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at
192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
35.In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
A. expedited forwarding
B. traffic policing
C. round-robin scheduling
D. low-latency queuing
Answer: D
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36.Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
A. on the router closest to the server
B. on the router closest to the client
C. on every router along the path
D. on the switch trunk interface
Answer: B
37.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Answer:
38.Refer to the exhibit.
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Switch1: 0C.E0.38.57.24.22
Switch2: 0C.0E.15.22.1A.61
Switch3: 0C.0E.15.1D.3C.9A
Switch4: 0C.E0.19.A1.4D.16
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
A. Switch 1
B. Switch 2
C. Switch 3
D. Switch 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, which consists of the priority value and the
MAC address. Because the priority values of all of the switches are not avalable, the MAC address is
used to determine the root bridge. Because S3 has the lowest MAC address, S3 becomes the root
bridge.
39.An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router.
What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic
protocol?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
40.In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an
organization?
A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the
organization.
B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.
C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
D. The ISP requiresthe new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.
Answer: A
41.An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network.
Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?
A. client exclusion
B. passive client
C. DHCP address assignment
D. static IP tunneling
Answer: C
42.Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and
automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
A. SLB
B. FHRP
C. VRRP
D. HSRP
Answer: D
43.Refer to the exhibit.
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Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99.
Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
A. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100
B. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100
C. R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1
D. R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0
Answer: B
44.Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
A. ntp authenticate
B. ntp server
C. ntp peer
D. ntp master
Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure a Cisco device as an Authoritative NTP Server, use the ntp master [stratum] command.
To configure a Cisco device as a NTP client, use the command ntp server <IP address>.
For example: Router(config)#ntp server 192.168.1.1. This command will instruct the router to query
192.168.1.1 for the time.
45.What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate
switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
A. access - core - distribution - access
B. access - distribution - distribution - access
C. access - core - access
D. access -distribution - core - distribution - access
Answer: D
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46.Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. bridge
D. mobility express
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200-series/70278-lap-faq.html
A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN
(WLAN) controller (WLC). APs are “lightweight,” which means that they cannot act independently of
a wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs
are “zero touch” deployed, and individual configuration of APs is not necessary.
47.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.
Answer:
48.An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-
party switch.
Which action should be taken?
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A. configure IEEE 802.1p
B. configure IEEE 802.1q
C. configure ISL
D. configure DSCP
Answer: B
49.What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
A. VTP
B. DTP
C. egress traffic
D. ingress traffic
Answer: D
50.Refer to the exhibit.
SW1#show run int gig 0/1
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
switchport access vlan 11
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk native vlan 5
switchport mode trunk
speed 1000
duplex full
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1
interface?
A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.
B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11
C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1
D. The frame is dropped
Answer: A
51.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
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Answer:
52.Refer to the Exhibit.
What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?
A. object
B. value
C. key
D. array
Answer: B
53.Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-
defined controller?
A. encryption and decryption for VPN link processing
B. building route tables and updating the forwarding table
C. changing the source or destination address during NAT operations
D. encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame
Answer: B
54.An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers.
Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
55.PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC
address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN.
Which switching concept does this describe?
A. MAC address aging
B. MAC address table
C. frame flooding
D. spanning-tree protocol
Answer: A
56.Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
A. read
B. update
C. create
D. delete
Answer: A
Explanation:
GET: This method retrieves the information identified by the request URI. In the context of the
RESTful web services, this method is used to retrieve resources. This is the method used for read
operations (the R in CRUD).
https://hub.packtpub.com/crud-operations-rest/
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57.Refer to the Exhibit.
A)
B)
C)
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D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
58.What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. single sign-on
B. unique user knowledge
C. passwords that expire
D. soft tokens
E. shared password responsibility
Answer: BD
59.Refer to the exhibit.
A multivendor network exists and the company is implementing VoIP over the network for the first
time.
A)
B)
C)
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D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
60.What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?
A. It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices
B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required
C. It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.
D. It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary
Answer: A
61.Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.
B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-
of-order.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are
acceptable.
D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
Answer: C
62.Refer to the exhibit.
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Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against
the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access
the network must not be limited.
Which action completes this configuration?
A. Uncheck the Guest User check box
B. Check the Guest User Role check box
C. Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0
D. Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value
Answer: C
63.Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
A. northbound API
B. REST API
C. SOAP API
D. southbound API
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco overview doc for SDN here:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN.html
64.When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose
two)
A. relay agent information
B. database agent
C. address pool
D. smart-relay
E. manual bindings
Answer: CE
65.Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
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A. ARP
B. DHCP
C. CDP
D. DNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/how-dhcp-server-dynamically-assigns-ip-address-to-a-host/#:~:text=DHCP is an abbreviation for,subnet mask and gateway ad dress.
66.Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
A. disabled
B. listening
C. forwarding
D. learning
E. blocking
Answer: B, D
67.Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted
at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch.
What identifies the issue?
A. The QoS policy is dropping traffic.
B. There is a duplex mismatch.
C. The link is over utilized.
D. The MTU is not set to the default value.
Answer: C
68.Refer to the exhibit.
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The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly.
Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
A. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface
B. There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.
C. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
D. There is an interface type mismatch
Answer: A
69.A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new
Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards,
including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from
1024.
Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
A. crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024
B. transport input all
C. crypto key generate rsa usage-keys
D. crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048
E. transport Input ssh
Answer: AE
70.What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access
point is connected to a PoE switch port?
A. All four pairs of the cable are used
B. It detects the device is a powered device
C. The default level is used for the access point
D. Power policing is enabled at the same time
Answer: D
71.SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping
ports are configured.
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Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)
A. Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.
B. Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.
C. Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.
D. Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.
E. Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.
Answer: D, E
72.What is a characteristic of RSA?
A. It uses preshared keys for encryption
B. It requires both sides to have identical keys
C. It is a private-key encryption algorithm
D. It is a public-key cryptosystem
Answer: D
73.Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch.
What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive
addresses from the DHCP server?
A. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP
client.
B. Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the
DHCP client.
C. Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP
server.
D. Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the
DHCP server.
Answer: C
74. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED
reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively
dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate
congestion by preventing the queue from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than
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waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and
minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be
used fully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP
precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the
priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered
75.What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
A. 1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up
to 70 km.
B. 1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a
conditioning patch cable with a multimode.
C. 1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to
70 km
D. 1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and
1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.
Answer: C
76.What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall
B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
Answer: D
77.Refer to the exhibit.
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How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router
C?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D
78.Refer to the exhibit.
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A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The
operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network.
Which command will accomplish this task?
A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22
C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22
D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note: Already a statement is there in last to allow SSH Traffic for network 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127, but
Second statement says deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255, so how it will work once it is denied. So the
right answer is remove the --- no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255.
79.Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at
Site A?
A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.
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B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.
C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25
D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Router2 does not have an entry for the subnet 10.10.13.128/25. It only has an entry for 10.10.13.0/25,
which ranges from 10.10.13.0 to 10.10.13.127.
https://study-ccna.com/administrative-distance-metric/
80.What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
Answer: B
81.How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services
B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control
D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control
Answer: B
82.Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
ipv6 unicast-routing statementincluded (IPv6 is enabled on the router). Compared to the exhibit,
Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 have correct configurations. The route to subnet 2001:db8:4::/64 points to R18’s
Fa1/0 (correct next-hop).
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83.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the
right
Answer:
84.Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. SCP
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D. Telnet
E. SSH
Answer: DE
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-5/configuration-
guide/b_cg75/b_cg75_chapter_011110.html
85.Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?
A. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several
remote sites
B. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location
C. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites
D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters
Answer: D
Explanation:
“The original poster makes a correct observation that EIGRP does not work in a pure IPSEC
environment. IPSEC was designed to process unicast traffic.
86. The user confirms their identity by providing the additional authentication for their second-factor
method.
87.What is the purpose of an SSID?
A. It provides network security
B. It differentiates traffic entering access posits
C. It identities an individual access point on a WLAN
D. It identifies a WLAN
Answer: D
Explanation:
“In IEEE 802.11 wireless local area networking standards (including Wi-Fi), a service set is a group of
wireless network devices which share a service set identifier (SSID) …
A service set forms a logical network of nodes operating with shared link-layer networking
parameters; they form one logical network segment.“
88.Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two
VLANs to its WLANs?
A. LAG
B. EtherChannel
C. trunk
D. access
Answer: C
89.1.Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a
specific time period?
A. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6
B. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10
C. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Forward time: Determines how long each of the listening and learning states last before the port
begins forwarding.
Switch(config)# [ no ] spanning-tree vlan vlan_ID forward-time forward_time
Configures the forward time of a VLAN. The forward_time value can be from 4 to 30 seconds. https://
www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/15-02SG/configuration/guide/config/s
pantree.html#56177
90.Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs added to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow
between other PCs?
A)
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B)
C)
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D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
91.What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
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A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network
B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy
Answer: B
92.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Answer:
93.Refer to the exhibit.
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Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report
intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB.
What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
A. Interface errors are incrementing
B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA
C. High usage is causing high latency
D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type
Answer: A
94.Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.
C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.
D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
Answer: D
95.Refer to me exhibit.
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Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for
10.10.10.16?
A. It uses a route that is similar to the destination address
B. It discards the packets.
C. It floods packets to all learned next hops.
D. It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.
Answer: A
96.Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server.
Which command must the engineer configure?
A. R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
B. R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2
C. R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10
D. R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2
Answer: B
97.Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network
connectivity between them must be configured.
98.Refer to the exhibit.
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An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination
subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86.
Which command must be executed on R14?
A. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1
B. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89
C. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171
D. ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255
Answer: C
99.Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
A. lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10
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D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10
Answer: D
100.Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
A. The port transitions to STP blocking
B. The port transitions to the root port
C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.
D. The port goes into error-disable state
Answer: D
101.Refer to the exhibit.
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Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?
A. 209.165.200.0/27
B. 10.10.10.0/28
C. 0.0.0.0/0
D. 10.10.13.0/24
Answer: C
102.How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port
B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.
C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses
D. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically
Answer: A
103.What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
A. It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.
B. It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.
C. It summarizes the operational status of each wireless devise on the network.
D. It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.
Answer: A
104.What isa similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats
B. Both cable types support LP connectors
C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors
D. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes
Answer: A
Explanation:
“In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is the term applied to transmitting
Ethernet frames at a rate of a gigabit per second.”
Both standards use Ethernet framing (same headers and trailers)
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105.Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
A. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active
B. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable
C. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive
D. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto
E. int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on
Answer: A, C
106.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Answer:
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107.Refer to the Exhibit.
The router R1 is in the process of being configured. Routers R2 and R3 are configured correctly for
the new environment.
Which two commands must be configured on R1 for PC1 to communicate to all PCs on the
10.10.10.0/24 network? (Choose two.)
A. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.3
B. ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.2.2
C. ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 g0/1
D. ip route 10.10.10.8 255.255.255.248 g0/1
E. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 192.168.2.2
Answer: A, E
108.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the
right.
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Answer:
109. The password is validated by an authentication server and, if correct, the user becomes eligible
for the second factor.
110.Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the
network using a lightweight access point?
A. TACACS server
B. wireless access point
C. RADIUS server
D. wireless LAN controller
Answer: B
111.DRAG DROP
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Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions
on the right.
Answer:
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Explanation:
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1998559&seqNum=3
112.Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML
Answer: BE
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_A
PIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configura
tion_Guide_chapter_01.html
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/5_x/rest_api_config/b_Cisc
o_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x/b_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x_chapter_
010.pdf
The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) REST API is a programmatic interface that
uses REST architecture. The API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS
messages that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML)
documents.
113.Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared
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link? (Choose two)
A. ::ffif 1014 1011/96
B. 2001 7011046:1111:1/64
C. ;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d
D. 2002 5121204b 1111:1/64
E. FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104
Answer: B
114.Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
A. propagates VLAN information between switches
B. listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding
C. provides DDoS mitigation
D. rate-limits certain traffic
Answer: A
115.Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the
Internet?
A. global unicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. multicast
Answer: B
116.How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain
B. give it a value in the private VLAN range
C. assign it as VLAN 1
D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link
Answer: A
117.Refer to the exhibit.
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Which command provides this output?
A. show ip route
B. show ip interface
C. show interface
D. show cdp neighbor
Answer: D
118.The service password-encryption command is entered on a router.
What is the effect of this configuration?
A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
B. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
C. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
D. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
Answer: A
119.What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.
B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.
C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.
D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.
E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual
resources
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
Private cloud is cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization, whether managed
internally or by a third party, and hosted either internally or externally.
Most public-cloud providers offer direct-connection services that allow customers to securely link their
legacy data centers to their cloud-resident applications.
120.Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being
considered unusable?
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A. Alert
B. Error
C. Emergency
D. Critical
Answer: C
121.What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. connect wireless devices to a wired network
B. support secure user logins to devices or the network
C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
Answer: A
122.What is a specification for SSIDS?
A. They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.
B. They must include one number and one letter.
C. They define the VLAN on a switch.
D. They are case sensitive.
Answer: B
123.What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
A. core and WAN
B. access and WAN
C. distribution and access
D. core and distribution
Answer: D
124.How does MAC learning function on a switch?
A. broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing
B. adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table
C. sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received
D. sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group
Answer: B
125.What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?
A. ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
B. 2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::
C. fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::
D. fe80:4433:034:0dd::2
Answer: D
126.Refer to the Exhibit.
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An engineer is asked to conferee router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor
relationship with R2.
Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
127.Refer to the exhibit.
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An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT is used to send a packet to the outside network, using a public IP address to make it routable.
The NAT logic is "inside-to-outside" FIRST and "outside-to-inside" THEN. This way,configuring NAT
means "choosing a public IP address" for any outbound packet" IN THE FIRST PLACE, where "public
IP address" translates to "inside global address". Among the given answers, the only inside global
address is 172.123.104.4.
128.Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 32
Answer: B
129.What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.
B. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.
C. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network
D. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3
functions.
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Answer: A
130.On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the
device?
A. DHCP
B. STP
C. SNMP
D. DNS
Answer: A
131.Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it
will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same
route to 10.10.0.0/16.
Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
A. GigabitEthernet0/0
B. GigabltEthornet0/1
C. GigabitEthernet0/2
D. GigabitEthernet0/3
Answer: B
132.The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets.
Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24
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subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
A. ip route 192.168.10.1
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1
C. ip helper-address 192.168.10.1
D. ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1
Answer: C
133.What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
A. local port ID
B. lowest path cost to the root bridge
C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID
D. lowest neighbor's port ID
Answer: B
134.How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points
B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.
C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.
D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.
Answer: A
135.Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
A. 200
B. 301
C. 404
D. 500
Answer: A
136.DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Answer:
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137.Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all
other traffic?
A)
B)
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C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
138.What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from
the MAC address table?
A. It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.
B. It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.
C. It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.
D. It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.
Answer: A
139.How does encryption project the wireless network?
A. via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame
B. via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks
C. via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it
D. via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network
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Answer: C
140.When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward
requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
A. DHCP relay agent
B. DHCP server
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPOFFER
Answer: A
141.An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services.
Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
A. platform-as-a-service
B. software-as-a-service
C. network-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:
+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a
third-party vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients’ side. Most SaaS applications can
be run directly from a web browser without any downloads or installations required, although some
require plugins.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing
cloud components to software.
What developers gain with PaaS is a framework they can build upon to develop or customize
applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple,
and cost-effective. With this technology, enterprise operations, or a thirdparty provider, can manage
OSes, virtualization, servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS software itself. Developers, however,
manage the applications.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and managing
remote datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal), storage, networking,
and networking services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase hardware outright, users can
purchase IaaS based on consumption, similar to electricity or other utility billing.
In general, IaaS provides hardware so that an organization can install their own operating system.
142.DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
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Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
Answer:
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143.Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
A. access ports
B. Layer 3 main Interfaces
C. Layer 3 suninterfaces
D. trunk ports
Answer: A
144.An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router.
Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
A. Exchange
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Init
Answer: C
145.Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A. Bronze
B. Platinum
C. Silver
D. Gold
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-
wlan/81831-qos-wlc-lap.html
Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice,
Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.
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146.Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01
Answer: A
Explanation:
With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx, in which xx is the VRRP group.
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