ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL_SYLL2018 Exam Dumps

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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) CTFL_SYLL2018
exam free dumps questions are available below for you to study. 
Full version: CTFL_SYLL2018 Exam Dumps Questions
1.The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.
Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights
Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights
Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted
Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights
Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit
Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight
Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?
A.6,3,1,4,2,5
B.3,4,1,2,5,6
C.3,2,1,4,6,5
D.3,1,4,2,6,5
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Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct logical order for the test cases is 3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5. This order follows the logical sequence of
actions that a user would perform to book a flight using a web-based airline booking system. The
order also respects the dependencies between test cases, such as logging in before searching for
flights or booking a flight before printing a confirmation receipt. The other options are incorrect logical
orders for the test cases.
Option A does not follow the logical sequence of actions and does not respect the dependencies
between test cases. For example, it starts with confirming details and booking a flight before logging
in or selecting a flight.
Option B does not follow the logical sequence of actions and does not respect the dependencies
between test cases. For example, it starts with selecting a flight before logging in or searching for
flights.
Option C does not follow the logical sequence of actions and does not respect the dependencies
between test cases. For example, it starts with viewing selected items in My Flights before selecting
any flights.
2.When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:
A. Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process
repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.
B. Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return
on investment and therefore should be introduced first.
C. Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the
introduction of tool support.
D. Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have
the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should C. Perform analysis of the test
process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support. Testing
tools can provide many benefits to the test process, such as increased efficiency, effectiveness,
consistency, quality, etc. However, testing tools also have some challenges and risks associated with
them, such as cost, learning curve, compatibility, maintenance, etc. Therefore, before introducing any
testing tool, an organization should analyze their current test process and identify their needs, goals,
expectations, constraints, etc., and then evaluate whether a tool can support them or not. A detailed
explanation of testing tools can be found in Software Testing Foundations: A Study Guide for the
Certified Tester Exam, pages 193-1983.
3.A system sets new users' password to a temporary password
The temporary password is a random number based on the first sft: characters of the username.
If the username is shorter than 6 characters, the system displays an error message.
Which of the following is a possible representation of equivalence classes for the username string?
A. {Random number}
{Error message}
B. {Error message displayed}
{Error message not displayed}
C. {Username shorter than 6 characters}
{Username equal to or longer than 6 characters}
D. {Username with a permanent password}
{Username with a temporary password}
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Answer: C
Explanation:
The equivalence classes for the username string are based on the length of the string, not on the type
of password or the error message. Therefore, option C is correct, as it divides the username string
into two equivalence classes: shorter than 6 characters and equal to or longer than 6 characters.
Option A is incorrect, as it does not consider the length of the username string.
Option B is incorrect, as it does not specify the criteria for displaying or not displaying the error
message.
Option D is incorrect, as it confuses the username string with the password string.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 4.2.2
4.Which of the following sentences about testing and debugging is correct?
A. Re-testing checks that debugging has found and analyzed the failure
B. Dynamic testing finds defects, while debugging removes failures
C. Dynamic testing reveals failures, while debugging removes defects
D. Like most development activities, debugging is usually done before testing starts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Testing and debugging are two different activities that are related to finding and removing defects and
failures in software. Testing is the process of evaluating software by applying test cases to find
failures and provide information on its quality. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and
removing the causes of failures in software. Testing reveals failures, which are deviations of the
actual behavior of the software from its expected behavior. Debugging removes defects, which are
flaws in the software that cause failures.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.2.1
5.Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher
quality?
A. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can
enhance quality
B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects
C. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system
D. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement that does not describe how testing contributes to higher quality is “The testing of
software demonstrates the absence of defects”. This statement is false because testing cannot prove
that a software system is defect-free or has a certain level of quality because there might be some
untested inputs or outputs that could reveal defects or failures. Testing can only provide information
about the quality and risk level of a software system based on the observed behavior and results
under certain conditions and assumptions. The other statements describe how testing contributes to
higher quality by:
Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance
quality: This statement is true because reviewing the requirement specifications can help identify and
prevent defects, ambiguities, inconsistencies, or incompleteness in the requirements before they are
implemented in the system, which can save time and effort and improve customer satisfaction.
Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system: This statement is true because
passing tests can increase confidence that the system meets itsrequirements and expectations and
provides value to the users and customers. Passing tests can also reduce the probability or impact of
failures or defects in the system that could cause harm or loss.
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Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities: This
statement is true because identifying defects can help analyze and remove their causes and prevent
them from recurring in future development activities. Identifying defects can also help improve
development processes, methods, standards, tools, techniques, etc., by providing feedback and
lessons learned.
You can find more information about how testing contributes to higher quality in [A Study Guide to the
ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 1.
6.Refer to the exhibit
The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision
table below.
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior
railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket.
Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]
A. Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service
B. Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade
C. Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade
D. Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision
table below. The decision table has six columns representing six rules and eight rows representing
eight conditions or actions. The table is filled with “Y” and “N” values indicating whether a particular
condition is met for a particular rule.
!decision table
Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior
railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. The question asks which of the options represents
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the correct actions for these two test cases. To answer this question, we need to find the matching
rule for each test case and then look at the corresponding actions. For Carol, the matching rule is rule
2, as she has a student railcard (Y) and a Flexible Standard Class ticket (Y). The actions for rule 2
are: OK to travel (Y), eligible to upgrade (Y), and concessionary fare (N). Therefore, Carol is OK to
travel and eligible to upgrade, but not entitled to a concessionary fare. For James, the matching rule
is rule 6, as he has a senior railcard (Y) and a super saver ticket (N). The actions for rule 6 are: OK to
travel (N), eligible to upgrade (N), and concessionary fare (N). Therefore, James cannot use the
service, is not eligible to upgrade, and is not entitled to a concessionary fare. Among the options
given in this question, only A correctly represents these actions. A says that Carol is eligible to
upgrade and James cannot use the service. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
7. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1
to 60
Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of
valid and invalid boundary values?
A. Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60
B. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second
C. Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
D. Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61
Answer: C
Explanation:
Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61 is the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary
values applying 2-value boundary value analysis1. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests
the values at and near the boundaries of an input domain or output range1. A 2-value boundary value
analysis tests two values for each boundary: one valid value and one invalid value1. For Frequency,
the valid boundaries are 1 and 5, so the test set should include one valid value (1 or 5) and one
invalid value (0 or 6) for each boundary. For Duration, the valid boundaries are 1 and 60, so the test
set should include one valid value (1 or 60) and one invalid value (0 or 61) for each boundary. The
other options are incorrect test sets of valid and invalid boundary values applying 2-value boundary
value analysis.
Option A only includes valid values for each boundary, but not invalid values.
Option B includes invalid values that are not adjacent to the boundaries (59 seconds and 60 minutes
1 second).
Option D includes more than two values for each boundary (0, 1, 2 for Frequency; 0, 1, 30 for
Duration).
8.Which of the following would NOT typically be covered in a test summary report?
A. The risks associated with unresolved defects found during testing.
B. Any features of the system that were not tested along with reasons.
C. Whether there is any economic benefit in continuing testing beyond the planned date.
D. An analysis of lessons learned to determine changes for future projects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, a test summary report is a document that summarizes the results and
activities of a completed test level. It typically includes information such as test objectives, test
items, test environment, test cases executed, defects found, incidents raised, and lessons learned.
The answer C is incorrect because it would not typically be covered in a test summary report. The
economic benefit of continuing testing beyond the planned date is not a relevant information for a
completed test level, as it is more related to project management decisions. The other answers are
correct because they are examples of information that would typically be covered in a test summary
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report.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 5.4.1, page 62-63.
9. Testing to ensure the application of a new version of the operating system does not have any
unintended side-effects on the system
10.You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.
Which one of the following is the BEST approach?
A. Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects
B. Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script
C. Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance
D. Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the
results
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool’s script is the
best approach to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company, because it
allows for more flexibility, maintainability, and reusability of automated test scripts1. A keyword-driven
testing approach uses keywords or commands to represent actions or data in the test scripts, which
can be stored in external files or tables and accessed by the tool1. The other options are not good
approaches to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.
Option A is not a good approach, because selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality
to find the most defects does not consider the suitability, feasibility, and cost-effectiveness of
automation1.
Option C is not a good approach, because ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the
tool’s script for ease of maintenance makes the test scripts more rigid, complex, and difficult to
modify1.
Option D is not a good approach, because keeping expected results separate from the automation
tool to allow the testers to check the results reduces the efficiency and reliability of automation and
increases the manual effort
11.Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:
A. Determine differences between files or databases.
B. Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.C. Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.
D. Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis tools are used to find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.
Dynamic analysis tools monitor the behavior and performance of the software under various
conditions and report on any anomalies or errors. Dynamic analysis tools are not used to determine
differences between files or databases, which is a function of comparison tools. Dynamic analysis
tools are not used to measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been
exercised, which is a function of code coverage tools.
12.A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour.
In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and
must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.
Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional
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requirements expressed in this statement?
A. Performance, Usability, Regression.
B. System, Load, Fail-over.
C. Performance, Load, Stress.
D. Load, Volume and Component.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance, Load, Stress. Performance testing is a type of non-functional testing that measures how
well the system performs under various conditions, such as response time, throughput, resource
utilization, etc. Load testing is a type of performance testing that simulates a high volume of user
requests or transactions on the system and measures its behavior under normal and peak load
conditions. Stress testing is a type of performance testing that simulates extreme or abnormal
conditions on the system and measures its behavior under stress or overload conditions. These test
types would help verify the requirements such as minimum number of enquiries per hour, availability,
and response time under peak loads. A detailed explanation of performance, load, and stress testing
can be found in Software Testing Foundations: A Study Guide for the Certified Tester Exam, pages
187-1913.
13.When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT
typically be performed by a tester?
A. Prepare and acquire the test data
B. Set up and check the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review tests developed by others
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reviewing tests developed by others would not typically be performed by a tester, but rather by a test
leader or a peer reviewer1. Reviewing tests developed by others is an activity that involves checking
the quality and completeness of the test cases or procedures and providing feedback or suggestions
for improvement1. The other options are tasks that would typically be performed by a tester.
Option A is a task that would typically be performed by a tester, because it involves preparing and
acquiring the test data that are needed for executing the test cases or procedures1.
Option B is a task that would typically be performed by a tester, because it involves setting up and
checking the test environment that supports the execution of the test cases or procedures1.
Option C is a task that would typically be performed by a tester, because it involves writing test
summary reports that document the results and outcomes of the test execution1.
14.Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?
a) Identifying, a failure
b) Locating the cause of failure
c) Fixing the defect
d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure
A. a & d
B. a & b
C. b & c
D. c & d
Answer: C
Explanation:
b & c are debugging activities, because they involve locating the cause of failure and fixing the defect
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in the software. Debugging is the process of finding and removing the causes of software failures.
The other options are not debugging activities, but rather testing activities.
Option A is a testing activity, because it involves identifying a failure in the software by comparing the
expected and actual results.
Option D is a testing activity, because it involves checking the fix has resolved the failure by re-testing
the software.
15.Refer to the exhibit
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Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]
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A. X=2, Y=2, Z=2
B. X=2, Y=3, Z=4
C. X=2, Y=4, Z=3
D. X=4, Y=3, Z=2
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question asks which of the test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised.
The statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is executed when X > Y and Z < Y. Therefore, to exercise this
statement, we need to choose a test case that satisfies these conditions. Among the options given in
this question, only C satisfies these conditions. X = 42 > Y =43 and Z =42 < Y =43. Therefore, C is
the correct answer.
16.Which of the following CORRECTLY matches a tester's ability to communicate about defects, test
results, and other test Information well?
A. Emphasizing the benefits of testing
B. Taking a command-and-control approach with the project learn
C. Being firm and assertive with test findings and information
D. Writing subjective defect reports and review findings
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, a tester’s ability to communicate about defects, test results, and other test
information well is an important skill that contributes to testing effectiveness and efficiency. A tester
should be able to communicate clearly, accurately, objectively, constructively, politely, and
persuasively with various stakeholders involved in testing or affected by testing outcomes. A tester
should also be able to use appropriate communication methods and tools depending on the context
and purpose of communication. The answer A is correct because it is an example of a tester’s ability
to communicate about defects, test results, and other test information well. Emphasizing the benefits
of testing means highlighting how testing adds value to the software product and the business goals.
This can help to gain support and trust from stakeholders and foster a positive attitude towards
testing. The other answers are incorrect because they are examples of poor communication skills that
can hinder testing effectiveness and efficiency. Taking a command-and-control approach with the
project team (B) means imposing one’s own decisions or opinions without considering others’ inputs
or feedback. This can create conflicts and resentment among team members and reduce
collaboration and cooperation. Being firm and assertive with test findings and information © means
insisting on one’s own views or demands without being flexible or open-minded. This can lead to
arguments and disagreements with stakeholders who may have different
perspectives or expectations. Writing subjective defect reports and review findings (D) means using
personal, biased, or unobservable information that does not support the evaluation or analysis of
defects or tests. This can cause confusion and misunderstanding among stakeholders who may not
be able to reproduce or verify the defects or tests.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.5.1, page 19-20.
17.Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?
A. A variable is defined but is then not used
B. A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined
C. A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it
D. A variable is used but not declared
Answer: C
Explanation:
A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it is the type of defect that would not be typically
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found byusing a static analysis tool, because it is a logical or functional error that depends on the
context and requirements of the software13. A static analysis tool can detect syntactic or structural
errors in the code, such as missing declarations, undefined variables, unused variables, or
unreachable code13. The other options represent such errors that can be typically found by using a
static analysis tool.
Option A is an error where a variable is defined but is then not used, which indicates a waste of
memory or a possible logic flaw13.
Option B is an error where a variable is used in a calculation before it is defined, which can cause
unpredictable results or exceptions13.
Option D is an error where a variable is used but not declared, which can cause compilation or
runtime errors
18.Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version
controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?
A. Software traceability process
B. Incidence management process
C. Testing design process
D. Configuration management process
Answer: D
Explanation:
The process that ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for
changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process is D. Configuration
management process. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the
integrity and consistency of all items of testware throughout the test process. Configuration
management involves identifying, storing, controlling, tracking, and auditing all items of testware
(such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, etc.) and their versions and
changes. Configuration management helps to ensure that only authorized and approved items of
testware are used for testing and that traceability can be maintained between them. A detailed
explanation of configuration management can be found in A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation
Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 101-1021.
19.Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of a tester?
A. Producing interim test reports.
B. Finding the root cause of a defect.
C. Writing the test specification
D. Reporting and tracking bugs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Finding the root cause of a defect is not a major responsibility of a tester. Finding the root cause of a
defect is usually done by developers who have access to the source code and can debug it to identify
and fix the defect.
Testers are responsible for reporting and tracking defects, but not for finding their root causes2 states
this as follows:
The role of testers is to find defects in software products and report them to developers who are
responsible for fixing them. Testers do not need to know how to fix defects or find their root causes,
as this requires access to the source code and debugging skills that are typically possessed by
developers.
A, C, and D are incorrect answers. Producing interim test reports, writing the test specification, and
reporting and tracking bugs are major responsibilities of a tester. Producing interim test reports is part
of test monitoring and control, which involves measuring and evaluating test progress and quality
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against objectives and criteria. Writing the test specification is part of test analysis and design, which
involves identifying test conditions based on test basis and designing test cases based on test
techniques. Reporting and tracking bugs is part of test implementation and execution, which involves
logging incidents when observed outcomes deviate from expected outcomes and tracking their status
until closure.
20.An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.
Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.
Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.
The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available
back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever
Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?
A. Incident Management Tool
B. Configuration Management Tool
C. Test Execution tool
D. Backup tool
Answer: B
Explanation:
A configuration management tool is a tool that allows users to manage and control the versions and
changes of software artifacts, such as code, documents, test cases, etc.
A configuration management tool can help prevent the loss of Sam’s updates by:
Providing a centralized repository where Sam can store and retrieve his test cases and other artifacts
Keeping track of the history and status of each artifact and allowing Sam to compare and revert to
previous versions if needed
Supporting collaboration and communication among team members by allowing them to share and
access the latest versions of the artifacts
The other tools mentioned in the question are not relevant for this scenario because they do not
provide the same functionality or benefits as a configuration management tool.
For example:
A: Incident management tool: This tool type allows users to record, track, manage, and report the
defects found during testing. It does not help with managing or controlling the versions or changes of
test cases or other artifacts.
C: Test execution tool: This tool type allows users to execute test cases automatically or semi-
automatically and compare the actual results with the expected results. It does not help with
managing or controlling the versions or changes of test cases or other artifacts.
D: Backup tool: This tool type allows users to create copies of data or files and store them in a
different location or device for recovery purposes. It does not help with managing or controlling the
versions or changes of test cases or other artifacts.
You can find more information about configuration management tools in [A Study Guide to the
ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 6, Section 6.4.
21.A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.
Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?
A. To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system
B. To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component
C. To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph
D. To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen does not reflect structural testing, but
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rather functional testing or usability testing1. Structural testing verifies whether the software meets the
specified design and code standards by measuring aspects such as code coverage, complexity, or
coupling1. The other options reflect structural testing at different levels of granularity.
Option A reflects structural testing at the system level by testing all paths that users could take
through the screen menu system1.
Option B reflects structural testing at the component level by ensuring that 100% decision coverage is
achieved for each system component1.
Option C reflects structural testing at the component integration level by testing all branches of
component calls within the application call graph
22.Which of the following defects-can NOT be found by static analysis tools?
A. Infinite loops
B. Wrong business rules
C. Syntax errors of the code
D. Undefined variables
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wrong business rules are defects that cannot be found by static analysis tools, because they are
logical or functional errors that depend on the context and requirements of the software13. A static
analysis tool can only detect syntactic or structural errors in the code or design of the software under
test, but not whether they match the intended business rules or logic13. The other options are defectsthat can be found by static analysis tools.
Option A is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a structural error that
causes the code to loop indefinitely without terminating13.
Option C is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a syntactic error that
causes the code to fail to compile or run13.
Option D is a defect that can be found by a static analysis tool, because it is a structural error that
indicates a waste of memory or a possible logic flaw
23.What is static analysis?
A. The decision between using white or black box test techniques.
B. Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.
C. A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without
executing code.
D. It is a testing technique used during system testing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static analysis is a technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed
without executing code. Static analysis can be done manually or automatically using tools that
examine the code or design of a software system without running it. Static analysis can help identify
and prevent defects, measure complexity, check compliance, or improve quality.
The other statements are not correct definitions of static analysis because they describe different
concepts related to testing.
For example:
A: The decision between using white or black box test techniques: This statement describes a test
strategy, which is an approach or method for designing and executing test cases based on various
factors, such as scope, objectives, risks, resources, etc.
B: Executing software to validate the most common path through the code: This statement describes
dynamic testing, which is a technique to find defects in software by executing it under various
conditions and inputs and comparing the actual results with the expected results.
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D: It is a testing technique used during system testing: This statement describes a test level, which is
a group of test activities that are organized and managed together based on some criteria, such as
objectives, scope, target audience, etc.
You can find more information about static analysis in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation
Level
2018 Syllabus], Chapter 6, Section 6.3.
24.Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?
A. Validation Is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified
requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective
evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
B. Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified
requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective
evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
C. Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified
requirements have been met while verification Is confirmation through the provision of subjective
evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
D. Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified
requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective
evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, verification is the process of evaluating a product or component to
determine whether it satisfies its specified requirements. Validation is the process of evaluating a
product or component to determine whether it fulfills its intended use and user expectations.
Verification answers the question “Are we building the product right?” while validation answers the
question “Are we building the right product?” Both verification and validation involve providing
objective evidence, which means factual, unbiased, and observable information that supports the
evaluation. The answer D is correct because it best distinguishes the terms “validation” and
“verification”. The other answers are incorrect because they either confuse the terms “validation”
and “verification” or use subjective evidence, which means personal, biased, or unobservable
information that does not support the evaluation.
Reference: [Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus], Section 1.2.1, page 10-11.
25.Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?
A. Exploratory testing
B. Structure based testing
C. Specification based testing
D. Use Case testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exploratory testing would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure, because
it is a type of experience-based technique that allows testers to design and execute tests based on
their intuition, knowledge, and skills, without following a predefined test plan or test cases. Exploratory
testing can be useful when testing time is very limited, as it can help to find important defects quickly
and adapt to changing requirements or situations. The other options are not good test techniques to
use when under severe time pressure.
Option B is not a good option, because structure-based testing is a type of technique that requires
analysing the code or design of the software under test to measure aspects such as code coverage,
complexity, or coupling. Structure-based testing can be time-consuming and may not be feasible or
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effective when testing time is very limited.
Option C is not a good option, because specification-based testing is a type of technique that requires
analysing the requirements or specifications of the software under test to design test cases that verify
the expected functionality or behaviour. Specification-based testing can also be time-consuming and
may not be suitable or efficient when testing time is very limited.
Option D is not a good option, because use case testing is a type of technique that requires analysing
the use cases or scenarios of the software under test to design test cases that verify the end-to-end
user interactions and outcomes. Use case testing can also be time-consuming and may not be
relevant or effective when testing time is very limited.
26.Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the
specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions.
Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the
execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test
Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]
A. Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first
transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.
B. Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails.
Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not
allow future dated transactions C see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.
C. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a
future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not
always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.
D. Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod
1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure
attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated
transactions C see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incident report is a document that records any event occurring during testing that requires
investigation1.An incident report should contain sufficient information to enable reproduction of the
incident and resolution of the defect1. According to IEEE 829 Standard for Software Test
Documentation, an incident report should contain the following information: Identifier: A unique
identifier for the incident report
Summary: A brief summary of the incident
Incident description: A description of the incident, including:
Date: The date when the incident was observed
Author: The name of the person who reported the incident
Source: The software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed
Version: The identification of configuration items of the software or system
Test case: The identification of the test case that caused the incident
Execution phase: The phase of test execution when the incident was observed
Environment: The hardware and software environment in which the incident was observed
Description: A description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident
Expected result: The expected result of the test case
Actual result: The actual result of the test case
Reproducibility: An indication of whether the incident can be reproduced or not
Impact analysis: An analysis of the impact of the incident on other aspects of the software or system
Incident resolution: A description of how the incident was resolved, including:
Resolution date: The date when the incident was resolved
Resolver: The name of the person who resolved the incident
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Resolution summary: A brief summary of how the incident was resolved
Status: The current status of the incident (e.g., open, closed, deferred)
Classification information: A classification of the cause and effect of the incident for metrics and
reporting purposes
Therefore, among the options given in this question, only D provides the best detail on an incident
report. It contains a clear title, a reproducibility indicator, a description that includes both expected
and actual results, a reference to the specification document, and a screen shot of the failure. The
other options are either missing some important information or providing inaccurate or irrelevant
information
27.Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'
A. Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.
B. Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.
C. The last executable statement within a component.
D. Cost overruns.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density. Exit criteria are the conditions that must be
met before testing can be completed and the system can be released. Exit criteria can be based on
factors such as coverage of code or requirements, schedule or budget constraints, estimates of
defect density or severity, etc. Exit criteria help to determine when to stop testing and evaluate the
quality of the system. A detailed explanation of exit criteria can be found in A Study Guide to the
ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 15-161.
28. Recording updated status of defects
29.Which statement about Static Testing is TRUE?
A. Static testing can be applied to any work product that participants know how to read and
understand.
B. Static testing must only be applied to final work products that have been signed off.
C. Static testing must be conducted by users of the product being tested.
D. Static testing executes the code to verify the functionality is as expected.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test,
but rather analyzing it using various techniques, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs,
checklists, static analysis tools, etc. Static testing can be applied to any work product that participants
know how to read and understand, such as requirements specifications, design specifications, code,
test cases, test plans, user manuals, etc. Static testing can help find defects and improve the quality
of any work product at any stage of the software development lifecycle.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 3.1 and 3.2
30.Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?
I Static analysis can be used instead of dynamic testing.
II, Static analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.
III Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.
IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.
A. II, Ill
B. I, IV
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C. I, II,
D. III, IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
I and II, are false statements about static analysis. Static analysis cannot be used instead of dynamic
testing (I), as it cannot verify the behavior or performance of the system under test at runtime. Static
analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities (II,), as it can detect potential weaknesses or
flaws in the source code that may lead to security breaches. defines static analysis as follows:
Static analysis is a type of software testing that analyzes the source code or other software artifacts
without executing them. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and
standards, detect syntax and logical errors, measure complexity and quality metrics, identify code
smells and bad practices, find potential security vulnerabilities, and improve maintainability and
readability.
III and IV are true statements about static analysis. Static analysis can be used to check conformance
to specifications and standards (III), as it can compare the source code or other software artifacts
against predefined rules or criteria. Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing
(IV), as it can be performed early in the development cycle before compiling or executing the code.
31.During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?
A. Test Execution.
B. Test Planning.
C. Test Design.
D. Test Analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The fundamental test process consists of five main activities: test planning and control, test analysis,
test design, test implementation and execution, and test evaluation and reporting. During the test
analysis activity, the testability of requirements is evaluated, meaning that the requirements are
checked for clarity, completeness, consistency, verifiability, etc. Test analysis also involves identifying
test conditions based on the test basis, such as requirements, specifications, user stories, or use
cases.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 2.4.1 and 4.2.2
32.Which of the following Is NOT a benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work
products?
A. It helps evaluate the extent of test coverage
B. It obscures the impact of changes
C. It allows testing to be auditable
D. It meets the criteria for IT governance
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, traceability between the test basis and test work products is the ability to
link each element of the test basis to the various test work products associated with that element,
such as test conditions, test cases, test procedures, and test results. Traceability between the test
basis and test work products has several benefits, such as evaluating the extent of test coverage,
analyzing the impact of changes, making testing auditable, meeting IT governance criteria, improving
the understandability of test reports, and providing information to assess product quality, process
capability, and project progress. The answer B is incorrect because it is not a benefit of traceability
between the test basis and test work products. It obscures the impact of changes. On the contrary,
traceability helps to reveal the impact of changes by showing which elements of the test basis are
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affected by a change and which test work products need to be updated or executed accordingly. The
otheranswers are correct because they are examples of benefits of traceability between the test
basis and test work products.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.4.4, page 18-19.
33.What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?
A. System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates
on the functionality of the system
B. System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the
customer
C. System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems.
Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements
D. System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct
interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment
Answer: C
Explanation:
System integration testing and acceptance testing are two different levels of testing that have different
objectives and stakeholders. System integration testing is the process of testing the interactions and
interfaces between different components or systems that form a larger system. System integration
testing verifies that the system meets its functional and non-functional requirements and works as
expected in its intended environment. System integration testing is usually done by testers or
developers who have access to the system architecture and design specifications. Acceptance testing
is the process of testing the system by the end users or customers to determine if it satisfies their
needs and expectations and is ready for deployment or delivery. Acceptance testing verifies that the
system complies with the user requirements and business processes and provides value to the
stakeholders. Acceptance testing is usually done by users or customers who have access to the user
requirements and business scenarios. You can find more information about system integration testing
and acceptance testing in A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, Chapter 2,
Sections 2.2 and 2.31.
34.Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT
support the principle of early testing?
A. The Waterfall model
B. The V-model
C. The Incremental development model
D. The Iterative development model
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the syllabus, a software development life cycle (SDLC) model is a conceptual framework
that describes the phases and activities involved in developing a software product. Different SDLC
models have different advantages and disadvantages depending on the project context and
objectives. The principle of early testing states that testing activities should start as early as possible
in the software development life cycle and be focused on defined objectives. Early testing helps to
prevent defects, reduce rework, lower costs, and improve quality. The answer A is correct because it
best exemplifies a model that does not support the principle of early testing. The waterfall model is a
sequential SDLC model that divides the development process into distinct phases, such as
requirements analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance. Each phase must be
completed before the next phase can begin, and there is no overlap or iteration between phases.
Testing is done only after the implementation phase, which means that defects are detected late in
the development cycle and are more expensive and difficult to fix. The other answers are incorrect
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because they exemplify models that support the principle of early testing. The V-model is an
extension of the waterfall model that emphasizes verification and validation activities at each phase of
development. Testing is done in parallel with each corresponding development phase, which means
that defects are detected early and feedback is provided to the developers. The incremental
development model is an iterative SDLC model that divides the development process into smaller
increments or iterations, each delivering a working software product or a subset of features. Testing is
done at the end of each iteration, which means that defects are detected early and feedback is
provided to the developers. The iterative development model is another iterative SDLC model that
repeats the development process for each iteration, with each iteration producing an improved
version of the software product or a subset of features. Testing is done throughout each iteration,
which means that defects are detected early and feedback is provided to the developers.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.1.1, page 9-10.
35.You are testing a mobile app that displays a person's status in respect of Covid-19. There are five
possibilities: Fully Vaccinated, Partly Vaccinated, Infected & Recovered. Last Tested Positive or Last
Tested Negative. You have found that, after receiving data about successful administration of a
second injection, the person's status has not changed from Partly Vaccinated to Fully Vaccinated,
although it should have done.
The project uses a popular proprietary defect management tool where you have drafted an incident
report with the following information:
• Test id., test environment used and date/time of run
• Expected and actual results with steps to reproduce.
• Severity level 4 (Critical - an entire functional area is unusable)
• Version data for the application under test and the testware that was used
Which one of the following important items of information is missing?
A. Recommendations
B. Name of Tester
C. Priority
D. Change History
Answer: C
Explanation:
Priority is an important item of information that is missing from the incident report. Priority indicates
the importance or urgency of resolving the incident, based on the business needs and the impact on
the stakeholders. Priority is usually assigned by the project manager or the customer, and it helps to
determine the order in which incidents should be addressed. Priority may differ from severity, which
indicates the degree of impact of the incident on the system or the component under test. Severity is
usually assigned by the tester or the developer, and it helps to assess the risk of the incident. For
example, an incident may have a high severity but a low priority, if it affects a critical function but only
occurs in a rare situation. Conversely, an incident may have a low severity but a high priority, if it
affects a minor function but occurs frequently or affects many users. Therefore, both priority and
severity are useful information for incident management and resolution.
The other options are not essential information for the incident report, although they may be helpful
or desirable in some cases. Recommendations are suggestions or proposals for resolving the
incident, which may be provided by the tester, the developer, or other stakeholders. However,
recommendations are not mandatory, and they may not be feasible or acceptable in some situations.
Name of tester is the identifier of the person who reported the incident, which may be useful for
communication or accountability purposes. However, name of tester is not critical, and it may be
replaced by other identifiers, such as email address, employee number, or role. Change history is the
record of the changes made to the incident report, such as status, resolution, or comments. Change
history is valuable for tracking and auditing purposes, but it is not part of the initial incident report,
rather it is updated as the incident progresses.
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Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 5.3.2, p. 49-50 1; ISTQB
Glossary v4.0, p. 38-39 2
36.Which of the following statements about use cases and use case testing is NOT TRUE?
A. Use cases can be used as test basis for acceptance testing
B. Use case testing can find defects in the process flow.C. Use cases can be described at the abstract level or at the system level
D. Use cases are normally derived from decision tables
Answer: D
Explanation:
The statement that use cases are normally derived from decision tables is not true. Decision tables
are a technique to represent complex logical conditions in a tabular form, where each column
represents a possible combination of conditions and actions. Use cases are a technique to describe
how a system interacts with one or more actors (users or other systems) to achieve a specific goal.
Use cases are not derived from decision tables, but from the requirements and the user’s perspective
of the system.
Reference: [Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus], Section 4.5.2 and 4.3.2
37.Which of the following lists contains only black-box test techniques?
A. Exploratory testing. State transition testing, Control flow testing
B. Decision table testing. Use case testing, Control flow testing
C. Decision table testing, Use case testing, State transition testing
D. Use case testing, Statement testing, State transition testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Black-box test techniques are test techniques that are based on an analysis of the test basis without
reference to the internal structure of the system under test. Decision table testing is a black-box test
technique that uses a table showing combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their
associated outputs and/or actions (effects). Use case testing is a black-box test technique that uses
scenarios based on use cases (descriptions of sequences of events that a system performs that yield
an observable result of value to a particular actor). State transition testing is a black-box test
technique that uses models of the state transitions and events of a system to design test cases.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 3.
38.Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test
environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]
A. Planning and control
B. Analysis and design
C. Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: C
Explanation:
The fundamental test process is a generic model that describes the main activities and tasks involved
in testing. The fundamental test process consists of five phases: planning and control, analysis and
design, implementation and execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, and test closure
activities. Implementation and execution is the phase where test cases and test procedures are
implemented according to test specifications and executed on the system or component under test
using test tools or manual methods. Implementation and execution also involves verifying that the test
environment set up is correct, which means ensuring that the test environment (such as hardware,
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software, network, data, etc.) is ready and suitable for testing the system or component under test. A
detailed explanation of implementation and execution can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB®
Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 19-21.
39.Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be used as a basis for estimating testing effort?
A. Requirements for documentation
B. Quality of the test basis Work
C. Breakdown Structure
D. Skills of the test team
Answer: C
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a project management technique that decomposes a project into
smaller and manageable tasks. It is not a factor that is used as a basis for estimating testing effort,
but rather an outcome of the estimation process. The other options are factors that can influence the
testing effort, such as the quality of the test basis, the requirements for documentation, and the skills
of the test team.
Reference: Section 2.3, Section 2.4
40.Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested.
What is the term used to define this type of testing?
A. Reliability Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Maintainability Testing
D. Regression Testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of testing a defect that has been fixed to
verify that it has been resolved and does not affect other parts of the system. Confirmation testing is
usually done by the same tester who reported the defect and using the same test case that revealed
the defect. You can find more information about confirmation testing in A Study Guide to the ISTQB®
Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, Chapter 3, Section 3.21.
41.Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]
A. Spelling mistake on an error message
B. A potential infinite loop
C. Memory leakage
D. A variable set to the wrong value
Answer: B
Explanation:
A potential infinite loop is a type of defect that can be typically identified using static analysis by
tools1. Static analysis is a technique that examines the source code or other software artifacts without
executing them, and can detect defects, vulnerabilities, code smells, and deviations from standards
early in the development process1. Static analysis tools are software tools that automate the static
analysis technique and provide various features and functionalities to support it1. Static analysis tools
can identify a potential infinite loop by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the source code and
checking for conditions or statements that may cause an endless repetition or iteration1. A potential
infinite loop can cause serious problems in software performance, functionality, reliability, and
security1. Therefore, a potential infinite loop is a type of defect that can be typically identified using
static analysis by tools.
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42.Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?
A. Providing information on the status of the system
B. Preventing defects
C. Finding defects in the software
D. Debugging the software to find the reason for defects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Debugging the software to find the reason for defects is not a common objective of testing.
Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and removing the causes of failures in software.
Debugging is usually done by developers after testers have reported defects found during testing.
Testing is the process of evaluating software by applying test cases to find defects and provide
information on its quality.
Testing has several common objectives, such as:
Providing information on the status of the system, such as its readiness for release, its compliance
with requirements, its risks and issues, etc.
Preventing defects, by applying good practices throughout the software development lifecycle, such
as reviews, inspections, static analysis, etc.
Finding defects in the software, by applying test cases that cover different aspects of the software
functionality, quality, performance, security, etc.
Therefore, statement D is not correct.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.1 and 1.2
43.Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an
operational system?
A. Data migration
B. System retirement
C. System modification
D. Introduction of a test management tool
Answer: D
Explanation:
The introduction of a test management tool does not represent one of the three triggers for
maintenance testing an operational system, because it does not affect the functionality or
performance of the system itself. Maintenance testing is triggered by system modification (such as
corrective, adaptive, perfective or preventive changes), data migration (such as moving data from one
platform or format to another), or system retirement (such as decommissioning or replacing an old
system)1.
44.A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After
running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one ofthe system's
modules.
Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?
A. Defect clustering
B. Early testing
C. Pesticide Paradox
D. Absence-of-errors fallacy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Defect clustering is the phenomenon that a small number of modules contain most of the defects
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detected. This principle suggests that testing should focus more on the areas where defects are more
likely to occur, rather than spreading the testing effort equally across all modules. Therefore, in the
next test cycle, the team should allocate more resources to test the module that had most of the
critical bugs.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 1, Section
1.2.2, page 5.
45.Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated teller
Machine) system.
Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4, which are shown below:
Given the following additional test cases:
Which two of the additional test cases would achieve fill coverage of the full decision table (when
combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules a and 4?
A. DT1, DT2
B. DT2, DT3
C. DT3, DT4
D. DT1, DT4
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, as DT1 and DT4 would achieve full coverage of the full decision table when
combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. Decision table
testing is a black-box test technique that uses a table to show combinations of inputs and their
associated outputs1. In this case, the inputs are the account type, the amount entered, and the
expected result. The outputs are the actions taken by the ATM system. The decision table has eight
rules, each corresponding to a possible combination of inputs and outputs.
The test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4 are:
TC1: Account = Checking, Amount = $600, Expected Result = Process the transaction
TC4: Account = Savings, Amount = Not entered, Expected Result = Generate an error message
The additional test cases are:
DT1: Account = Checking, Amount = Not entered, Expected Result = Generate an error message
DT2: Account = Savings, Amount = $100, Expected Result = Process the transaction
DT3: Account = Checking, Amount = $100, Expected Result = Process the transaction
DT4: Account = Savings, Amount = $600, Expected Result = Generate an error message
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To achieve full coverage of the full decision table, two more test cases are needed that cover the
remaining six rules.
DT1 and DT4 cover these rules, as shown in the table below:
Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect, as they do not cover all
the rules in the decision table.
Reference: 1, Section 4.2.5
46.Component testing may include:
A. Sociability testing.
B. User acceptance testing.
C. Beta testing.
D. The use of stubs and drivers.
Answer: D
47.Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?
A. To be based on specifications
B. To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation
C. To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system
D. To include both functional and non-functional testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system. White box testing
techniques are based on the internal structure and code of the system, not on its specifications or
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functionality. White box testing techniques include statement coverage, decision coverage, branch
coverage, path coverage, etc. White box testing techniques are usually performed at lower levels of
testing, such as unit testing or component testing. A detailed explanation of white box testing
techniques can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages
68-74.
48. Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders
Black - Black-box test techniques
White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques
A. Black -1.2 White - 3. 4 Experience - 5
B. Black -2.3 White -1.5 Experience - 4
C. Black -2.3 White - 1 Experience - 4. 5
D. Black -1.3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct matching of the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is as follows:
Black-box test techniques: Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the
requirements, use cases and user stories (1), Test cases can show deviations from the requirements
(3), These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing (4) White-box
test techniques: Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture
or code (2) Experience-based test techniques: Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users
and other stakeholders (5) Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are
incorrect, as they do not match the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques
correctly.
Reference:, Section 4.2
49.During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?
A. Test Implementation and Execution
B. Test Planning and Control
C. Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting
D. Test Analysis and Design
Answer: D
Explanation:
The testability of requirements is evaluated during the Test Analysis and Design stage of the
fundamental test process3. The fundamental test process consists of five main activities: Test
Planning and Control: This activity involves defining the scope, objectives, approach, and resources
for testing, as well as monitoring and controlling the test progress and results3.
Test Analysis and Design: This activity involves analyzing the test basis (such as requirements,
design, etc.) and designing the test cases, procedures, and environment3. The testability of
requirements is evaluated during this activity, as it involves checking the clarity, completeness,
consistency, and testability of the requirements3.
Test Implementation and Execution: This activity involves implementing the test cases and
procedures, preparing the test environment and data, executing the test cases, and logging the test
results and incidents3.
Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting: This activity involves evaluating the test results against the exit
criteria (such as coverage, defect rate, etc.) and reporting the test status and outcomes to the
stakeholders3.
Test Closure Activities: This activity involves finalizing the test documentation, archiving the test
artifacts, evaluating the test process and lessons learned, and releasing the test resources
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50.Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:
A. Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and
reporting, test closure.
B. Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure
reports.
C. Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs,
communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.
D. Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and
reporting, test closure. The fundamental test process is a generic model that describes the main
activities and tasks involved in testing. The fundamental test process consists of five phases: planning
and control, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation of exit criteria and
reporting, and test closure activities. Each phase has specific objectives, inputs, outputs, and
deliverables. A detailed explanation of the fundamental test process can be found in AStudy Guide to
the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 13-241.
51.When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved.
Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique
in order to achieve highest coverage?
A. multiple condition coverage
B. decision table
C. use case testing
D. statement coverage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multiple condition coverage is a structure-based test technique that aims to achieve a high level of
coverage by testing all possible combinations of conditions and outcomes in each decision point of
the code or design of the system under test. Multiple condition coverage verifies that each condition in
a decision point has an effect on the outcome and that there are no hidden defects or logical errors in
the code or design. Multiple condition coverage requires some knowledge of the internal structure or
implementation of the system under test; it focuses on how the system does what it does rather than
what it does. Multiple condition coverage is one of the most rigorous and complex structure-based
test techniques because it can generate a large number of test cases for each decision point,
especially if there are many conditions involved. You can find more information about multiple
condition coverage in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 4,
Section 4.3.
52.Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test
function in an organisation?
A. To improve defect finding during reviews and testing
B. To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards
C. To limit communication between developers and testers
D. To provide better metrics for the stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
Having an independent test function in an organisation can improve defect finding during reviews and
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testing, because independent testers can provide a different perspective and have less bias than
developers or other stakeholders. Independent testers can also focus on testing activities without
being influenced by development pressures or deadlines12. The other options are not valid reasons
for having an independent test function.
Option B is more related to code reviews, which can be done by developers themselves or by peers.
Option C is not beneficial, because communication between developers and testers is essential for
effective testing and defect resolution.
Option D is not directly related to the test function, but to the test management and reporting
processes12.
53.A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical
grades.
The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:
Above 89. up to 100 C A
Above 79. up to 89 - B
Above 69. up to 79 C C
Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F
Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition
coverage?
A. 0, 58, 59, 70, 80
B. 69, 79, 80, 89, 90
C. 74, 79, 84, 85, 89
D. 79,89,90,99,100
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it achieves the highest equivalence partition coverage. Equivalence
partitioning is a black-box test technique that divides the input domain into partitions of equivalent
data from which test cases can be derived1. In this case, the input domain is the numerical grades,
and the partitions are the ranges of grades that correspond to different letter grades.
Option B covers all five partitions, as it includes test inputs from each range.
Option A covers only four partitions, as it does not include any test input from the range above 89.
Option C covers only three partitions, as it does not include any test input from the ranges above 79
and below 60.
Option D covers only two partitions, as it does not include any test input from the ranges below 79.
Reference: 1, Section 4.2.3
54.Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first
release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]
a. To identify as many defects as possible
b. To maximise code coverage
c. To ensure the product works as expected
d. To assess the overall quality of the product
e. To determine the reliability of the product
A. b and c
B. a and d
C. b and e
D. c and d
Answer: D
Explanation:
The test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at
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a general market and built using Agile methods are D. c and d. User acceptance testing is a level of
testing that involves users or customers validating that the software product meets their needs and
expectations before accepting it for use or deployment. User acceptance testing can have different
objectives depending on the context and purpose of the software product.
For a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods, some possible
objectives are:
To ensure the product works as expected, which means verifying that the product meets the
functional and non-functional requirements agreed upon by the users or customers and the
development team during each iteration or sprint of the Agile development process.
To assess the overall quality of the product, which means evaluating how well the product satisfies
the quality attributes that are important for the users or customers, such as usability, performance,
reliability, security, etc.
A detailed explanation of user acceptance testing can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB®
Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 79-80.
55.A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part
of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate
applications.
Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?
A. A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software
B. A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department
C. A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis
D. A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software
Answer: B
Explanation:
A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of
the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate
applications. The most suitable team for this goal would be a team with a mix of software testers and
experts from the accounting department.
This team would have the following advantages:
Software testers have the skills and experience to design, execute, and evaluate test cases based on
the requirements and criteria of the company. They can also use tools and techniques to support their
testing activities and provide reliable and objective information about the quality and risk level of each
candidate application.
Experts from the accounting department have the knowledge and expertise to understand and
validate the functionality and usability of each candidate application. They can also provide feedback
and suggestions for improvement based on their needs and expectations as end users or customers.
The other teams mentioned in the question are not as suitable for this goal as they are for other
purposes or scenarios.
For example:
A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software: This team
might have the skills and experience to test accounting software, but they might not have the
knowledge and expertise to understand and validate the specific requirements and criteria of the
company that wants to buy the application. They might also lack the communication and collaboration
with the stakeholders of the company who are involved in the evaluation process. A team of users
from the accounting department that will need to use the application on a dailybasis: This team might
have the knowledge and expertise to understand and validate the functionality and usability of each
candidate application, but they might not have the skills and experience to design, execute, and
evaluate test cases based on the requirements and criteria of the company. They might also lack the
tools and techniques to support their testing activities and provide reliable and objective information
about the quality and risk level of each candidate application.
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A team from the company’s testing team, due to their experience in testing software: This team might
have the skills and experience to design, execute, and evaluate test cases based on the requirements
and criteria of the company, but they might not have the knowledge and expertise to understand and
validate the functionality and usability of each candidate application. They might also lack the
feedback and suggestions for improvement based on the needs and expectations of the end users or
customers.
56.Testing and Debugging are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are DEBUGGING activities?
a) Designing tests to find failures.
b) Locating the cause of failures.
c) Analyzing and fixing the defects.
d) Executing tests to show failures.
A. a and d.
B. a and b.
C. b and c.
D. c and d.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Testing and debugging are two different activities that are related to finding and removing defects and
failures in software. Testing is the process of evaluating software by applying test cases to find
failures and provide information on its quality. Debugging is the process of finding, analyzing, and
removing the causes of failures in software. Designing tests to find failures and executing tests to
show failures are testing activities. Locating the cause of failures and analyzing and fixing the defects
are debugging activities.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 1.2.1
57.Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]
A. Migration of software onto a new platform
B. Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system
C. Purchase of a new software tool
D. Updating of a regression suite
Answer: A
Explanation:
A circumstance where maintenance testing is required is A. Migration of software onto a new
platform. Migration of software onto a new platform is a type of change that affects the delivered
software product and requires maintenance testing to ensure that the software product still works
correctly and consistently on the new platform. A new platform can be a different hardware, operating
system, network, database, browser, etc., that supports or interacts with the software product.
Migration of software onto a new platform can introduce compatibility issues, performance issues,
security issues, etc., that need to be detected and resolved by maintenance testing. A detailed
explanation of migration testing can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus], page 82.
58.Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?
A. Analysing the test basis
B. Assigning resources for the planned activities
C. Designing the test environments
D. Writing a test execution schedule
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Assigning resources for the planned activities is an activity that is appropriate to the test planning
stage, because it involves estimating and allocating the necessary human and physical resources for
testing. Test planning is the process of defining the objectives, scope, approach, and resources for
testing. The other options are not activities that are appropriate to the test planning stage, but rather
to other stages of testing.
Option A is an activity that is appropriate to the test analysis stage, because it involves analysing the
test basis (such as requirements, design, or code) to identify test conditions.
Option C is an activity that is appropriate to the test implementation stage, because it involves
designing and preparing the test environments (such as hardware, software, network, or data) for test
execution.
Option D is an activity that is appropriate to the test execution stage, because it involves writing a test
execution schedule that defines the order and dependencies of test cases or procedures.
59.Which of the following is a direct benefit of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test
work products?
A. The ability to give meaningful names to documents
B. The ability to analyse the impact of changes
C. The ability to identify the author of each document
D. The ability to determine the best test design approach
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traceability between the test basis and test work products means that there is a clear and
documented relationship between the requirements, design, and other sources of test conditions, and
the test cases, test procedures, and test results that are derived from them. This helps to ensure that
the test work products are consistent, complete, and relevant to the test basis. One of the direct
benefits of maintaining traceability is the ability to analyse the impact of changes in the test basis on
the test work products, and vice versa. For example, if a requirement is changed, added, or deleted,
traceability can help to identify which test cases, test procedures, and test results need to be updated,
executed, or removed accordingly. Similarly, if a test result reveals a defect in the test basis,
traceability can help to locate the source of the defect and determine the scope of the correction.
Traceability also supports other benefits, such as measuring test coverage, reporting test progress,
and evaluating test quality, but these are not direct benefits of maintaining traceability, rather they are
outcomes of using traceability information for various purposes.
Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.1.2, p. 23-24 1; ISTQB
Glossary v4.0, p. 67 2
60.Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:
To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared
folder''.
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?
A. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure
B. Provides ideas for test process improvement
C. Does not belong in an incident report.
D. Provides test leaders with information to report test progress
Answer: A
Explanation:
Providing developers with information to isolate the failure is the incident report objective that this
excerpt satisfies. The excerpt provides the name and location of the test file that was used to recreate
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the failure, which can help developers to reproduce and debug the failure in their own environment.
defines this objective as follows:
One of the objectives of an incident report is to provide developers with information to isolate the
failure. This means providing enough details and evidence for developers to understand what caused
the failure and how to fix it.
This may include information such as:
Steps to reproduce: A sequence of steps that can be followed to recreate the failure.
Test data: The inputs that were used to execute the test case that caused the failure.
Test environment: The configuration and settings of the hardware and software that were used to
execute the test case that caused the failure.
Attachments: Any screenshots, logs, files, or other artifacts that can help to demonstrate or explain
the failure.
B, C, and D are incorrect answers. Providing ideas for test process improvement (B) is not an incident
report objective that this excerpt satisfies, as it does not provide any suggestions or feedback on how
to improve the test process or prevent similar failures in the future. Not belonging in an incident report
© is not true, as this excerptbelongs in an incident report as part of the incident details section.
Providing test leaders with information to report test progress (D) is not an incident report objective
that this excerpt satisfies, as it does not provide any metrics or indicators on how much testing has
been done or how many failures have been found.
61.Which one of the following is an example of how product risk analysis can influence the testing
approach?
A. The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for
test case design.
B. Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in
this area.
C. There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled
out.
D. There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a
contingency measure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Product risk analysis is an approach to testing that aims to reduce the level of product risks and
inform stakeholders of their status, starting in the initial stages of a project1. It involves the
identification of product risks and the use of risk levels to guide the test process1. Product risks are
uncertain situations that can affect the quality or value of the software product2. One of the factors
that can influence the testing approach is the test design technique to be applied3. Test design
techniques are methods to derive and select test cases based on the test objectives, test conditions,
and test basis2. Decision table testing is a test design technique that is suitable for testing complex
business rules that have logical conditions and outcomes2. Therefore, if the product risk analysis
identifies that the complex business rules could result in costly failures, then decision table testing will
be used for test case design to cover all the possible combinations of conditions and outcomes2. The
other options are not examples of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach,
because they are either not related to product risks or not based on risk levels. They are:
Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this
area (B). This is not related to product risk analysis, but to test monitoring and control, which is the
process of comparing actual progress against the plan and reporting the status2. Test analysis is the
activity of analyzing the test basis and defining test objectives2. If the performance failures were
much lower than expected, then more test execution or evaluation might be needed, not more test
analysis.
There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled
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out ©. This is not related to product risk analysis, but to test management, which is the process of
planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources2. Test automation is the use of
software to perform or support test activities2. The lack of automation skills in the test team is a
project risk, not a product risk, and it should be addressed by providing adequate training, tools, and
resources for the test team2.
There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a
contingency measure (D). This is not based on risk levels, but on the absence of risk identification,
which is a poor practice in product risk analysis. Security testing is a type of testing that determines
whether the software protects data and maintains functionality as intended2. Product risk analysis
should identify the potential security risks and assign them appropriate risk levels based on their
probability and impact1. Security testing should be prioritized based on the risk levels, not on the lack
of risk identification, which could lead to overlooking or underestimating the security risks1.
Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 syllabus
Risk in Software Testing
Risk-Based Testing
Test Approach
62.Software was found to take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second
to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop
which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired
response time is an example of
A. Failure
B. Defect
C. Error
D. It is not a defect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure. A failure is
an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits.
A failure is observable by end users or testers as a deviation from expected results. defines a failure
as follows:
Failure: Deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result.
B, C, and D are incorrect answers. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is
not an example of a defect (B), an error ©, or not a defect (D). A defect is a flaw in a component or
system that can cause it to fail to perform its required function. An error is a human action that
produces an incorrect result. Not a defect is a term used to describe an incident report that is rejected
or closed as invalid or out of scope.
defines these terms as follows:
Defect: A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its
required function.
Error: A human action that produces an incorrect result.
Not a defect: An incident report status indicating that there is no defect in relation to this incident
report.
63.After a record of poor-quality software releases (incorrect menu selection options, new features
that do not work, users allowed to change security levels without administrator rights), you have been
asked to review the test capability in your company.
You have limited time to do the review before the next project, which type of testing would be MOST
appropriate to review first?
A. Functional testing.
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B. Non-functional testing.
C. Performance testing.
D. Structural testing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Functional testing is the most appropriate type of testing to review first, after a record of poor-quality
software releases. Functional testing is a type of testing that verifies the functionality and behavior of
the software against its requirements and specifications. Functional testing can help detect defects
such as incorrect menu selection options, new features that do not work, users allowed to change
security levels without administrator rights, etc. Functional testing can also help improve the user
satisfaction and confidence in the software. Therefore, functional testing should be reviewed first to
ensure that it is done effectively and efficiently, and that it covers all the relevant aspects of the
software functionality.
Reference: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 2.3 and 5.2.2
64.Which of the following metrics are useful for monitoring the test progress?
A. The number of features implemented in the code
B. The number of changes done to the product's requirements
C. Percentage of work done on the user's manuals
D. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Percentage of work done in test environment preparation is a metric that measures how much of the
required test environment setup has been completed. This metric is useful for monitoring the test
progress because it indicates whether the test environment is ready for executing the planned test
cases or not.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 4, Section
4.2.3, page 93.
65.Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?
A. Independent testers within the development teams
B. Independent testers from the user community
C. Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability,performance or certification
test specialists
D. Code tested by another developer from the development team
Answer: C
Explanation:
The test organization that has the highest level of independence is C. Independent test specialists for
specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists. Test independence
refers to the degree of separation between the tester and the developer or user of the system or
component under test. Test independence can help to reduce bias and increase objectivity in testing.
Independent test specialists are testers who have specialized skills and knowledge in specific test
types or domains and who are not involved in the development or use of the system or component
under test. Independent test specialists can provide more reliable and accurate results than testers
who are part of the development team or user community. A detailed explanation of test
independence can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus],
pages 9-10.
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