Zero Trust Design 2023 D-ZT-DS-23 Dumps Questions

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Full version: D-ZT-DS-23 Exam Dumps Questions
1.Which model has key assets that are categorized and cataloged as part of Zero Trust?
A. IAAS
B. PAAS
C. SAAS
D. DAAS
Answer: D
2. Presume Breach: Administrate the systems in a manner such that the systems are hit by
ransomware.
3. PDP comes up with a final score for the user at the level deemed fit by the organization.
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4. The client requests the protected resource from the resource server and authenticates by
presenting the access token.
5.Why is real-time analytics important in modern security operations centers (SOCs)?
A. It allows SOCs to operate without human intervention.
B. It provides a historical perspective that is only useful for post-mortem analysis.
C. It enables immediate identification and mitigation of active security threats.
D. It is not considered valuable in modern SOCs.
Answer: C
6. The client requests authorization from the resource owner.
Answer: D
7. The device will send off a request for authorization.
8.How should changes in user roles be handled in an identity-based Zero Trust framework?
User roles should remain static to maintain simplicity in access management.
A. Access rights should be dynamically adjusted to reflect changes in user roles and responsibilities.
B. Users should request access through a manual process each time their role changes.
C. Role changes should be ignored to avoid administrative overhead.
Answer: B
9.What role does encryption play in a Zero Trust cloud architecture?
A. It is optional and used only for highly sensitive data.
B. Encryption at rest and in transit is a foundational element.
C. Only necessary for data in transit to save on processing power.
D. Considered ineffective and thus not recommended.
Answer: B
10.Which of the following is a principle of Zero Trust network architecture?
A. Network location is a key trust factor.
B. All devices are considered secure until proven otherwise.
C. Least privilege access control is enforced.
D. Annual security audits are sufficient for compliance.
Answer: C
11.An organization deployed modern application in their cloud environment.
Which Zero Trust aspect would help the organization to reduce implicit trust inherent in the modern
application, while limiting user access?
A. Implicit access control
B. Verify explicitly
C. Principle of least privilege
D. Network segmentation
Answer: C
12.Why is continuous monitoring and response a critical pillar in Zero Trust?
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A. It ensures uninterrupted user access to resources.
B. It enables real-time detection and response to threats, minimizing potential damage.
C. It simplifies IT infrastructure.
D. It reduces the need for user authentication.
Answer: B
13. The device will send its sign-on access to try and gain authorization.
14.A large bank is looking to increase their security posture. The leaders make decisions to work on
gap analysis and their environment capabilities.
Which phase of Zero Trust Implementation is being worked on?
A. Technical and Business Discovery
B. Policy Design
C. Architecture Design
D. Architecture Optimization
Answer: C
15.To effectively apply Zero Trust principles in networks, organizations must:
(Select two)
A. Rely solely on physical security controls.
B. Implement dynamic access controls based on real-time assessments.
C. Ensure all communications are encrypted, both internally and externally.
D. Use a single-sign-on system for all applications and services.
Answer: BC
16.What are significant factors in assessing the impact of Zero Trust implementation?
(Select two)
A. Organizational culture and readiness for change
B. Current geopolitical climate
C. Existing IT and security architectures
D. The CEO's personal preferences
Answer: AC
17.Which of the following are benefits of transitioning from a traditional perimeter-based security
model to a Zero Trust security model?
(Select two)
A. Reduces the need for advanced threat detection.
B. Limits lateral movement within the network.
C. Decreases reliance on a single point of security.
D. Simplifies user access management.
Answer: ABC
18.What is the correct order for the CISA Zero Trust Maturity Model Journey?
A. Advanced, Optimal, Traditional, and Initial
B. Optimal, Initial, Advanced, and Traditional
C. Initial, Traditional, Optimal, and Advanced
D. Traditional, Initial, Advanced, and Optimal
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Answer: D
19. Presume Breach: Administrate the systems in a manner such that the systems are hit by
ransomware.
20. Always Verify: The availability to resources, systems, data keeps changing from time to time and
is determined
B. 1. Scrutinization: Malicious personas present where all environments and NPE are treated as
untrusted.
21.1.What is the benefit of using analytics in identifying zero-day threats?
A. It ensures that zero-day threats are automatically patched.
B. It identifies unusual patterns that may indicate a new threat.
C. It eliminates the need for endpoint protection.
D. It guarantees that zero-day threats will not impact the network.
Answer: B
22.How many foundational pillars does the Zero Trust model typically include?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven
Answer: C
23.What is a key principle in designing a Zero Trust architecture for cloud environments?
A. Assume all network traffic is secure by default.
B. Trust the cloud provider to manage all aspects of security.
C. Encrypt data at rest and in transit.
D. Use a single, static firewall for perimeter defense.
Answer: C
24. PDP comes up with a final score for the user at the level deemed fit by the organization.
25.Which type of communication is allowed within a microsegmented network?
A. Only with devices from different organizations
B. Only within the same zone
C. Only with external networks
D. Between all devices
Answer: B
26.Which technologies are pivotal in enforcing an identity-based Zero Trust policy?
(Select two)
A. Traditional firewalls with static rules
B. Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems
C. Artificial intelligence for predicting user behavior
D. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools
Answer: BD
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27. Unified Analytics: Finds its application in Big Data, System Health Check.
28.How does a data-centric Zero Trust approach enhance data security?
A. By assuming all users, both inside and outside the organization, are trustworthy
B. Through continuous verification of user credentials before granting data access
C. By relying on traditional, perimeter-based defenses
D. By using a one-size-fits-all approach to data security
Answer: B
29.Enhanced Identity Governance in Zero Trust focuses on:
A. Reducing the number of passwords used
B. Ensuring appropriate access rights for users and devices
C. Decreasing user access to applications
D. Eliminating multi-factor authentication
Answer: B
30.What are the advantages of data classification for organizations?
A. Eliminating the need for data storage locally.
B. Enabling access control, data protection policies, and data integrity.
C. Enhancing data availability through cloud services.
D. Enforcing strict data sharing process and policies with external entities.
Answer: B
31.Whichtechnology is essential for enforcing Zero Trust policies in cloud environments?
A. Traditional network perimeter defenses such as firewalls
B. Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)
C. On-premises data centers to host sensitive data
D. Single-factor authentication mechanisms
Answer: B
32.What is the correct sequence of the Zero Trust implementation methodology?
A. 1. Policy design
33. Technical and business discovery
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