HCIA-5G-Core V1 0 H35-650-ENU PDF Questions

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Huawei H35-650-ENU Exam
HCIA-5G-Core V1.0
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1. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for converged deployment as defined by 3GPP?
A. AMFSMME
B. PCF and PCRF
C. UPF and PGW-U
D. HSS and UDM
Answer: A
Explanation:
3GPP explicitly requires certain network functions to be deployed in a converged manner in the 5G
standard to achieve interoperability with 4G networks. According to the specification, the PCF (Policy
Control Function) must be compatible with the PCRF (Policy and Charging Rules Function) to ensure
policy control continuity; the UPF (User Plane Function) must integrate the PGW-U (PDN Gateway User
Plane) to handle data plane traffic; and the HSS (Home Subscriber Server) and UDM (Unified Data
Management) must share user data management functions. The AMF (Access and Mobility Management
Function) is responsible for 5G mobility management, while the MME (Mobility Management Entity)
belongs to the 4G core network; their functions are separate, and converged deployment is not
mandatory.
The answer is based on 3GPP TS 23.501 and TS 23.502.
Of the options, only option A was not required to be merged.
2. In NSA networking, which component serves as the interface between the SGW and PGW?
A. S11
B. S5/S8
C. S4
D. S12
Answer: B
Explanation:
The interface definition in NSA networking refers to 3GPP TS 23.401. The interface between SGW and
PGW in the EPC architecture is divided into S5 (within the same PLMN) and S8 (between different
PLMNs), which are mainly used to transmit user plane data and control plane information.
Option A (S11) is the interface between the MME and SGW, option C (S4) is associated with the SGSN,
and option D (S12) involves the UTRAN. The correct option is B (S5/S8), which corresponds to the
standard interface of the SGW-PGW.
3. Which concept in EPC networks does 5G QoS flow correspond to?
A. APN
B. EPS bearer
C. Qos
D. PDN connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
5G QoS flow is the basic unit of service quality assurance in 5G networks, responsible for distinguishing
and processing different service requirements during data transmission. In the EPC (4G core network),
the EPS bearer plays a similar role, with each EPS bearer corresponding to a specific QoS policy to
ensure the priority and resource allocation of service data flows. 3GPP TS 23.501 explicitly draws an
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analogy between 5G QoS flow and EPS bearer. APN is used to identify external networks, QoS is a
general term, and PDN connection represents the overall link between the user and the external network;
none of these directly correspond to the functional level of QoS flow.
Option B correctly reflects this technology mapping.
4. Compared to traditional network elements, what is the new KPI in the NFV architecture?
A. Wireless connection rate
B. VM creation success rate
C. Packet loss rate
D. IMS registration success rate
Answer: B
Explanation:
The NFV architecture virtualizes traditional network element functions onto general-purpose hardware,
requiring monitoring of virtualization resource management metrics. Traditional network elements focus
on network performance parameters such as connectivity and packet loss rate, while NFV introduces
virtual machines (VMs) as resource carriers. The creation and destruction of VMs directly impact service
deployment efficiency, and the reliability of the virtualization layer needs to be measured by the VM
creation success rate.
Option B corresponds to the virtualization infrastructure management capabilities unique to NFV, while
the other options are general indicators of traditional network or service layers.
Refer to the virtualization resource management section of the ETSI NFV standard.
5. Which command in UDG20.0 is used to export configuration data from the OMU?
A. EXP MMLEX
B. EXP MML
C. EXP PERF
D. EXP STAT
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the UDG20.0 system, the command to export OMU (Operation and Maintenance Unit) configuration
data involves MML (Man-Machine Language) operations. In the relevant command specifications, the
export function usually begins with "EXP".
Option Analysis: EXP MML (Option B) is used to export configuration data based on MML format, directly
related to OMU configuration management; EXP MMLEX (A) may involve extended functions or
non-standard formats; EXP PERF (C) is generally associated with performance data export; EXP STAT
(D) is typically used for status information. According to the command definition in the UDG product
documentation, the standard command for exporting OMU configuration is EXP MML.
6. In the 5G NF defined by 3GPP, which of the following can be deployed at the edge as an API capability
provider for MEC?
A. NRR
B. UPP
C. NEF
D. NSSF
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Answer: C
Explanation:
3GPP defines several Network Functions (NFs) in the 5G core network architecture. The Network
Exposure Function (NEF) is responsible for exposing network capabilities to third-party applications or
edge computing platforms via APIs, supporting service exposure in edge deployment scenarios.
According to 3GPP TS 23.501 and TS 23.502, the NEF provides interface capabilities such as policy
control and data analysis, making it a key component for API exposure in MEC.
Option C corresponds to NEF and conforms to the standard definition; other options such as NRR and
UPP are not defined in the specification. NSSF is responsible for network slice selection and is unrelated
to API capability openness.
7. Which of the following descriptions about containers is incorrect?
A. Containers start up faster than VMs.
B. Containers are a guestos-level isolation technology.
C. Containers are used as carriers for deploying microservices.
D. Containers can be deployed based on v.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Container isolation mechanisms are implemented at the operating system level , rather than through a
separate guest OS. For more information on the principles of container isolation, please refer to the
official Docker documentation.
Option B describes containers as "Guest OS-level isolation technology," which is inaccurate. Containers
run processes directly through the host machine's kernel, using namespaces and cgroups to achieve
resource isolation, while virtual machines require a complete Guest OS.
Option B incorrectly confuses container isolation levels with virtual machines.
All other options conform to the core characteristics of containers: Option A is correct (faster startup),
Option C is correct (for deploying microservices), and Option D is correct (containers can be deployed in
virtual machine environments).
8. If the existing network is a cloud-based EPC (Engineering, Procurement, and Construction) system,
and the goal is to expand into the home broadband market as quickly as possible while minimizing
investment, which of the following analyses is the best choice for 5G network deployment strategy?
A. To avoid impacting the existing network and facilitate rapid service deployment, a new cloud-based
EPC+ network will be built, with standalone networking supporting Option 3x; 5G will use a separate
PLMN, making it easier for 5G terminals to select the EPC+ core network.
B. Upgrade the existing EPC network to an EPC+ network, and upgrade and expand the customer base
of the user plane gateway. Option 3x networking is recommended, with 5G and 4G sharing a PLMN.
C. Upgrade the existing network to SA architecture and upgrade LTE to LTE using Opton4 network, which
can quickly support 5G services.
D. Directly upgrade EPC to SA architecture, using Option 2 networking, to support all 5G services in one
step.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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The core of this question lies in the choice of NSA networking strategy and the evolution path of the
existing network. Option 3x is a non-standalone (NSA) network,
which relies on the existing 4G core
network to upgrade to EPC+ (enhanced packet core network), increases capacity through user plane
gateway expansion, and maintains shared PLMN with 4G to avoid the complexity of terminal reselection
and achieve rapid 5G deployment. SA architecture requires the construction of a new core network (such
as Option 2/4), which has high investment costs and a long cycle, and does not meet the requirement of
"reducing investment" in the question.
Therefore, option B, which involves a smooth upgrade of the existing network, balancing efficiency and
cost-effectiveness, is the optimal solution for expanding home broadband.
9. In the 5G-AKA authentication process, which of the following is NOT included in the authentication
parameters sent from AUSF to AMF?
A. AUIN
B. RAND
C. EXRES
D. XRES
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the 5G-AKA authentication process, the parameter exchange between the AUSF and AMF follows the
3GPP TS 33.501 specification. After processing the authentication vector from the UDM, the parameters
sent by the AUSF to the AMF typically include RAND (used to generate the user response), AUTN
(authentication token), and EXRES (encrypted or hashed form of the expected response). The XRES, as
the original expected response, is generated by the UDM and stored in either the AUSF or the UDM, and
is not directly transmitted to the AMF to enhance security.
Therefore, XRES is not present in the messages from AUSF to AMF.
Option D (XRES) is not included.
[Correct answer: D]
10. Which of the following descriptions about SUCI is incorrect?
A. AMF/SEAF does not support authentication triggered by SUCI.
B. SUCI is a temporary identifier used to hide SUPI.
C. AUSF and UDM can be addressed using the routing indicator in SUCI.
D. Generated by UE (USI or ME), decrypted in UDM/SIDF.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SUCI (Subscription Concealed Identifier) is a temporary identifier used in 5G to protect the user's
permanent identifier SUPI. It is generated by the UE using a public key and decrypted by the UDM/SIDF.
3GPP TS 33.501 specifies that after receiving the SUCI, the AMF/SEAF must pass it to the AUSF to
initiate the authentication process.
Option A is incorrect because AMF/SEAF actually supports authentication processes triggered based on
SUCI.
Option B is correct; the core function of SUCI is to hide SUPI.
Option C is correct; the routing indicator is used to route to the corresponding AUSF/UDM.
Option D is correct, as it conforms to the SUCI generation and decryption mechanism.
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11. Which of the following is NOT included in AN's selection of the AMF impact factors?
A. Selecting AMF based on load sharing
B. Accessibility-based AMF selection
C. Selection based on user number segment
D. Selecting AMF Set based on Requested NSSAI
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the AMF selection mechanism, the AN (Application Not Controller) needs to consider factors such as
network slice information (Requested NSSAI), load balancing strategies, and network reachability of the
target AMF during the selection process. User number ranges are typically used for core network user
data management (such as UDM selection), not in the AMF selection phase. 3GPP TS 23.501 explicitly
associates AMF selection with slices, load, and topology, but does not mention user number ranges as a
decision-making basis.
The user number range corresponding to option C does not fall under the judgment condition when AN
selects AMF.
12. Which command on UNC is used to change a user from connected to idle state?
A. RMV N2CONN
B. RMV UETNLA
C. RMV USR
D. RMV NGUSR
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question tests the command for a user to switch from connected to idle mode in a 5G network,
specifically UNC (Unified State). Network The Configuration server is a service simulation server
responsible for controlling the configuration of the user plane and core network plane, including
operations that switch a specified user from connected state to idle state. In 5G networks, a commonly
used command is RMVN2CONN, where RMV stands for "remove" and N2CONN stands for
"N2Connection," meaning an N2 connection. Executing the RMVN2CONN command switches a user
from connected state to idle state.
Therefore, the correct answer is RMVN2CONN.
13. Which UNC command is used to query information about 5G sessions on the AMF?
A. DSP SMCTX
B. DSP PDUSESSION
C. DSP NGSMCTX
D. DSP USRSESSIONCTX
Answer: C
Explanation:
In 5G network management, the AMF (Access and Mobility Management Function) is responsible for
handling user mobility and session management. The DSP NGSMCTX command is used to display
next-generation session management context information, involving the 5G session status and
parameters managed by the AMF.
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Option A is typically associated with 4G session management, option B is related to PDU session
resources but not at the AMF level, and option D is more general. This command naming conforms to the
3GPP specification's definition of session context and the implementation conventions of equipment
vendors.
14. Which of the following is NOT included in a slice management architecture?
A. MANO
B. NSSMF
C. NSMF
D. CSMF
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a slice management architecture, components typically include Network Slice Selection Function
(NSSMF), Network Slice Management Function (NSMF), and Service Aware Control Function (CSMF).
MANO is a term in mobile edge computing used to represent "Management, Orchestration, and Network
Functions Virtualization," and is not usually directly included in the slice management architecture.
Therefore, the correct answer is A.
15. Compared to 4G networks, which interface's cells have remained unchanged in 5G NSA?
A. Gx
B. Radius
C. Gy
D. s6a
Answer: C
Explanation:
5G NSA (Non-Standalone) differs from 4G networks in terms of technology, involving multiple interfaces
and cells.
In the comparison, it is necessary to pay attention to the changes of each interface in 5G NSA and 4G
networks.
* The Gx interface is the interface between network functions, typically used in mobile networks for policy
control and quality of service management, which may differ in 5G and 4G.
The RADIUS interface is used for authentication and authorization in both 5G and 4G networks, but the
specific data elements may differ.
The Gy interface is used for billing-related operations in both 5G NSA and 4G networks. In many respects,
this interface has not changed significantly in the 5G era, and its cells can be considered unchanged.
The S6A interface is a key interface used for user authentication and session management in mobile
networks. This interface exists in both 5G and 4G networks, but the cell types may differ.
Therefore, considering the functions and changes of the above interfaces in 5G NSA and 4G networks, it
can be concluded that, compared with the changes in the cells of other interfaces, the cells of the Gy
interface have not changed in 5G NSA and 4G networks.
Therefore, the answer is C. Gy.
16. Regarding a given session's 5QI-9, which of the following descriptions about that session is incorrect?
A. It must be Non-GBR Qos FOLD
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B. Possibly a proprietary QoS Flow
C. It must be GBR Qos Flow
D. It might be the default QoS Flow.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 5QI-9 of the session indicates that the QoS flow type of this session could be either a Non-GBR QoS
Flow or a proprietary QoS Flow, as both belong to QoS Flow. QoS Flow includes both default QoS Flow
and proprietary QoS Flow. However, it cannot be determined that it is definitely a GBR QoS Flow,
because the description of GBR QoS Flow (Global Bandwidth Limiting) is not directly related to the
information in the question.
Therefore, option C is an incorrect description.
17. Which of the following descriptions about 5G session management is incorrect?
A. The tunnel model was changed from load-bearing granularity to session granularity.
B. Establishing a user session connection during the registration process.
C. Introduce the SSC (Service and Session Continuity)
pattern
D. Add support for protocol types such as Ethernet and unstructured messages.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In 5G session management specifications, session connection establishment and registration are
independent processes. 3GPP TS 23.501 explicitly states that PDU session establishment must occur
after the UE completes registration, and is an independently triggered process.
Option B is incorrect because a user session connection is not established during the registration process;
registration only completes user authentication and location updates.
Option A correctly reflects the changes in the tunnel model at the granularity of 5G sessions, C
corresponds to the newly added SSC mechanism in 5G, and D conforms to the protocol's expanded
support for multiple data types.
18. Which of the following microservices is NOT a member of AMF (Advanced Management Functions)?
A. SBIM
B. NETM
C. SM
D. AM_POLICY
Answer: C
Explanation:
AMF (Access and Mobility Management Function) is a network function in the 5G core network
responsible for terminal access and mobility management. According to 3GPP TS 23.501, AMF
microservices include SBIM (Service Proxy Interface Management), NETM (Network Topology
Management), and AM_POLICY (Access Mobility Policy Control). SM (Session Management) is a core
responsibility of SMF (Session Management Function) and is not directly related to AMF.
19. Which deployment type does UNC not support?
A. GGSN
B. SMF
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C. SGSN
D. SGw-C
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the 5G core network architecture, the UNC (User Plane Control Node) is part of the user plane
functionality, used for data forwarding. The GGSN (GPRS Gateway Support Node) is a traditional 2G/3G
packet core network element, primarily responsible for data routing and access to external networks. With
the evolution of the 5G network architecture, the functions of the traditional GGSN have been
decomposed into new components such as the SMF (Session Management Function) and UPF (User
Plane Function) . The 5GC design specification explicitly states that the UNC, as a 5G user plane entity,
is no longer compatible with the deployment form of the GGSN, while SMF, SGSN, and SGW-C still have
corresponding or evolved implementations in different network architectures.
20. Which of the following descriptions of the UPCF system architecture is incorrect?
A. PMS Microservice: Policy Management Service, responsible for UPCF policy configuration
management.
B. CSLB Microservice: HTTP protocol load balancing, used for the access and distribution of HTTP
messages on the N7/N15 interface in 5G SA architecture.
C. USCDB Service: Provides traditional BE data storage, data management, and data service functions.
D. PES Microservice: Policy Engine Service, responsible for core UPCF policy calculation and processing,
handling business processing and policy calculation for N7/Gx/Rx/Sy interfaces.
Answer: B
Explanation:
UPCF (User Policy Control Function) is a module related to policy control in the 5G core network. While
3GPP protocols such as TS 29.512 and TS 29.513 define the N7/N15 interface to use the HTTP/2
protocol, load balancing is typically implemented by the Service Communication Broker (SCP).
Option B's description of the CSLB microservice is inaccurate. The responsibility for HTTP message
access and distribution on the N7/N15 interface should be implemented by the SCP or the underlying
SBA architecture, rather than by a dedicated CSLB service.
The descriptions of options A, C, and D all conform to the UPCF module definition.
21. Which of the following belongs to mMTC business scenarios?
A. Autonomous driving
B. Cloud VR/AR
C. High-definition video of smart cities
Answer: C
Explanation:
mMTC (Machine Type Communication) refers to machine-type communication services, primarily used
for data transmission between large numbers of machines. Based on the given options, only "Smart City
High-Definition Video" involves significant video data transmission, thus falling under the mMTC service
scenario. While autonomous driving and Cloud VR/AR also require communication, it primarily involves
human-to-human communication rather than machine-to-machine communication.
Therefore, option C is correct.
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22. Which of the following descriptions about slides is incorrect?
A. Slicing technology can be used to virtualize multiple end-to-end networks on a single general-purpose
hardware platform.
B. Different slices can share SMF and UPF.
C. Multiple slices cannot share AMF
D. It has three main characteristics: "on-demand customization", "end-to-end", and "isolation".
Answer: C
Explanation:
Slicing technology is a key feature of the 5G core network. 3GPP TS 23.501 specifies that AMF (Access
and Mobility Management Function) is a common control plane network element that can be shared by
multiple slices.
Option C contradicts the standard. AMF is logically independent of specific network slices, and the same
AMF instance can serve different slices.
Option A corresponds to end-to-end network virtualization capabilities, option B conforms to the
SMF/UPF shareable design principle, and option D accurately describes the three core characteristics of
slicing.
23. Which of the following descriptions about the operational changes brought about by the introduction of
slicing services is incorrect?
A. Changes in operators: from carrier operations personnel to carrier operations personnel + industry
tenants
B. Changes in maintenance hardware: Traditional hardware -> Cloud-based hardware
C. Business model has changed: from equipment vendor to operator -> equipment vendor to operator to
industry users.
D. Changes in the objects being maintained: Network elements -> Network and services
Answer: A
Explanation:
After the slicing service is introduced, the operators will not change and will still be responsible for the
operation and maintenance.
Of the other options, the hardware, business model, and maintenance objects will all change, so options
B, C, and D are correct. Regarding option A, in reality, when slicing services are introduced, the operator's
maintenance personnel are still responsible for the operator's services; only the industry tenant's services
are added. Therefore, the maintenance personnel do not change. Thus, option A is incorrect.
24. Which of the following network topologies can utilize a VoNR voice solution?
A. NSA Option 7
B. Option 2
C. NSA Option 3
D. NSA Option 3x
Answer: B
Explanation:
VoNR (Voice over New Radio) is implemented based on the 5G core network (5GC) architecture and
requires standalone (SA) network support. In the 3GPP standard, Option 2 is an SA architecture that uses
5GC to provide end-to-end 5G services, including voice services. NSA options (A, C, D) rely on the LTE
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core network, and voice communication must be implemented through VoLTE or EPS Fallback; VoNR
cannot be deployed directly in these cases.
Refer to the definition of 5G system architecture in 3GPP TS 23.501.
25. What is the RAT value for 5G NSA?
A. 4G
B. EUTRAN
C. 5G
D. NR
Answer: B
Explanation:
In 5G NSA (Non-Standalone) architecture, the RAT (Radio Access Technology) value reflects the access
technology at which the control plane anchor point is located. Under NSA deployment, terminals establish
control plane connections via 4G LTE (EUTRAN) as the master node, while 5G NR only carries user
plane data. According to the 3GPP TS 36.300 protocol, the core network in NSA scenarios still uses 4G
EPC, and terminal registration and control plane procedures are handled by EUTRAN; therefore, the RAT
value is identified as EUTRAN.
Option B corresponds to the technical identifier of the control plane anchor point in the NSA mode of the
protocol.
26. Which of the following descriptions of the microservices concept is incorrect?
A. Each microservice can be deployed independently.
B. Microservices must be developed using the same language.
C. Microservices are a type of software system architecture, not a technology.
D. In a microservices system,
if one service fails, it will not affect other services.
Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the core characteristics of microservice architecture is loose coupling , which allows each service
to be developed, deployed, and scaled independently. Martin Fowler, in explaining the definition of
microservices, points out that different microservices can use different technology stacks, including
programming languages, databases, etc.
Option B is incorrect. Microservices do not require development in the same language; teams can choose
the most suitable technology based on the characteristics of the service.
Options A, C, and D all conform to the principles of microservices: independent deployment (A),
architecture style not specific to any particular technology (C), and fault isolation (D). Materials such as
"Microservice Design" emphasize that technological heterogeneity is one of the advantages of
microservices.
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