Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam CSQE Dumps

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Full version: CSQE Exam Dumps Questions
1.An effective listener is defined as someone who
A. forms a reply while the speaker is talking
B. is attuned to nonverbal cues
C. asserts opinions without fear
D. draws parallels to other situations or times
Answer: B
Explanation:
An effective listener is defined as someone who is attuned to nonverbal cues. Effective listening
involves not only hearing the words but also understanding the speaker's body language, tone, and
other nonverbal signals, which can provide significant context and understanding beyond the spoken
words.
Reference: Adler, R. B., Rosenfeld, L. B., & Proctor, R. F. (2018). Interplay: The Process of
Interpersonal Communication (14th Edition). Brownell, J. (2012). Listening: Attitudes, Principles, and
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Skills (5th Edition).
2.Which of the following outputs is most likely to result from a sprint retrospective?
A. Stakeholder feedback
B. Refined product backlog
C. Product enhancement request
D. Continuous improvement action
Answer: D
Explanation:
A sprint retrospective is a meeting held at the end of a sprint in Agile methodologies, where the team
reflects on the past sprint to identify and agree on continuous improvement actions. The goal is to
improve the process, teamwork, and methods used in the project. This may result in action items
aimed at making the next sprint more efficient and productive.
Reference: Schwaber, Ken, and Sutherland, Jeff. "The Scrum Guide".
3.Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for mitigating the risk of releasing
patches to software?
A. Partial releases
B. Software rebuilds
C. Regression testing
D. Configuration management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regression testing is crucial when releasing patches as it ensures that the new changes have not
adversely affected the existing functionality of the software. It involves re-running previous tests on
the modified software to confirm that the old functionalities still work as expected and that the new
patches do not introduce new defects.
Partial releases, software rebuilds, and configuration management are important aspects of software
maintenance, but regression testing directly addresses the risk of introducing new issues with
patches.
Reference: "Software Testing: Principles and Practices" by Naresh Chauhan.
IEEE Standard 829-2008 for Software and System Test Documentation.
4.Which of the following activities should be classified as an internal failure cost?
A. Responding to customer satisfaction
B. Completing an internal audit
C. Shipping a maintenance build
D. Investigating the cause of build defects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Internal failure costs are costs associated with defects found before the product reaches the
customer.
These costs include:
Investigation of defects: Identifying and analyzing defects within the development process.
Rework: Fixing defects found during internal testing or audits.
Scrap: Discarding defective parts or products.
Downtime: Halting production or development to address defects.
Among the given options, investigating the cause of build defects is an internal failure cost because it
pertains to finding and analyzing issues within the software before it is released to customers.
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Reference: "Quality Planning and Analysis" by J.M. Juran and F.M. Gryna "Total Quality
Management" by Besterfield et al.
5.When performing top-down testing, which of the following tools is used in place of a module that is
not yet developed?
A. Stubs
B. Driver
C. Hamess
D. Test script
Answer: A
Explanation:
Top-down testing involves testing the top-level modules first and progressively integrating and testing
lower-level modules.
Stubs:
Definition: A stub is a piece of code used to simulate the behavior of lower-level modules that are not
yet developed or integrated.
Functionality: Provides a temporary implementation that allows the top-level module to be tested
without the presence of actual lower-level modules.
Purpose in Top-Down Testing:
Facilitate Testing: Enables the testing of higher-level modules early in the development process.
Incremental Integration: Supports the progressive integration of modules as they become available.
Reference: Standard software testing practices and methodologies describe the use of stubs in top-
down testing as an effective approach to manage incomplete components during early testing
phases.
6.Which of the following capabilities of a configuration management system is involved with
constructing a specific build of the software?
A. Project repository
B. Release notes
C. Version management
D. Issue tracking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Version management, also known as version control, is a capability of a configuration management
system that deals with tracking and managing changes to software code. It involves creating and
maintaining different versions of the software as it is developed and updated. Constructing a specific
build of the software relies on selecting the correct versions of the code and other artifacts that are
part of that build. Version management ensures that all the changes are properly recorded, and the
appropriate versions can be retrieved for constructing specific builds. This capability is essential for
reproducibility and consistency in the software development process.
Reference: Sommerville, Ian. "Software Engineering." 10th Edition, Addison-Wesley, 2015.
IEEE Std 828-2012, IEEE Standard for Configuration Management in Systems and Software
Engineering.
7.The diagram below corresponds to a 100-lme; high-level language program with a single loop that
can be executed no more than 20 times.
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If this program was exhaustively tested, approximately how many possible paths would be executed0
A. 6
B. 20
C. 200
D. 1014
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the given diagram, each diamond represents a decision point, and each square represents a
process step. Assuming the decisions and paths within the loop create unique paths, the complexity
can be calculated as follows: if each decision point splits into 2 paths and there are nnn decision
points within the loop, then the number of possible paths for one iteration can be represented as
2n2^n2n. Given that the loop executes 20 times, the total number of paths would be approximately
(2n)20(2^n)^{20}(2n)20. Since there are multiple decision points, the complexity quickly escalates,
leading to a very high number of possible paths, hence 1014 is a plausible approximation.
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8.Which of the following is the primary input to functional testing?
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Source code
D. Architecture
Answer: A
Explanation:
Functional Testing: Focuses on verifying that the software functions according to the specified
requirements.
Requirements: Serve as the primary basis for functional testing, outlining what the system should do.
Design: Used in subsequent stages to ensure the system is built according to requirements.
Source Code: Tested during implementation and unit testing phases.
Architecture: Provides the high-level structure of the system but not the detailed functional behaviors.
Conclusion: The primary input to functionaltesting is the requirements, as these documents specify
the expected functionality and behavior of the system, guiding the creation of test cases and
scenarios. This aligns with standard software testing methodologies where requirements drive the
development of functional test cases.
9.The modules in the following table were all created two years ago as part of the same software
project
Current Cyclomatic
Module Version Complexity
Which module is the most likely candidate for reengineering?
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reengineering a software module typically involves assessing various factors such as code
complexity, maintainability, performance requirements, and the age of the platform. The goal is to
identify modules that are costly to maintain, difficult to understand, or are becoming obsolete due to
platform changes12.
Cyclomatic Complexity: This is a quantitative measure of the number of linearly independent paths
through a program’s source code. A higher cyclomatic complexity indicates a more complex and
potentially less maintainable module2.
Looking at the table provided:
Module A has a version number of 12 and a cyclomatic complexity of 9.
Module B has a version number of 3 and a cyclomatic complexity of 21.
Module C has a version number of 9 and a cyclomatic complexity of 4.
Module D has a version number of 11 and a cyclomatic complexity of 20.
Given these details, Module B stands out as the most likely candidate for reengineering for the
following reasons:
It has the highest cyclomatic complexity (21), which suggests that the code is highly complex and
may be difficult to maintain or extend2.
The version number being 3 indicates that it has undergone fewer iterations of updates or fixes
compared to the other modules, which might imply that it has legacy code that could benefit from
reengineering.
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10.After test procedures have been executed and problems have been identified, the next step should
be to
A. begin updating the test cases and perform a retest
B. release the product to the customer
C. implement appropriate changes to the code
D. develop plans to resolve the issues reported
Answer: C
Explanation:
After test procedures have been executed and problems have been identified, the next step should be
to implement appropriate changes to the code. This involves fixing the identified defects or issues
based on the test results, followed by re-testing to ensure that the changes have resolved the issues
without introducing new ones.
Reference: Kaner, C., Falk, J., & Nguyen, H. Q. (1999). Testing Computer Software.
IEEE Standard for Software and System Test Documentation (IEEE 829-2008).
11.Which of the following types of meetings is structured most like a program review meeting?
A. Daily feedback
B. Scrum of Scrums
C. Iteration planning
D. Backlog refinement
Answer: B
Explanation:
A "Scrum of Scrums" meeting is structured most like a program review meeting. It is designed to
coordinate efforts among multiple Scrum teams working on the same project. During this meeting,
representatives from each team discuss their progress, impediments, and dependencies with other
teams. This is akin to a program review meeting where higher-level coordination and integration of
efforts are reviewed and managed.
Reference: Schwaber, K., & Sutherland, J. (2020). The Scrum Guide. Larman, C., & Vodde, B.
(2010). Practices for Scaling Lean & Agile Development: Large, Multisite, and Offshore Product
Development with Large-Scale Scrum.
12.One advantage of outsourcing is that it allows the primary company to
A. focus resources on its core competencies
B. redirect its resources on new product development
C. reduce the cost of ongoing training
D. eliminate the need for a skills-based workforce
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outsourcing is a business practice where a company hires an external organization to perform tasks,
handle operations, or provide services. One key advantage of outsourcing is that it allows the primary
company to focus its resources on its core competencies. By delegating non-core activities to external
specialists, the company can concentrate on what it does best, thereby enhancing efficiency,
innovation, and competitive advantage in its primary market.
Reference: "The Outsourcing Revolution" by Michael F. Corbett IEEE Software Engineering Body of
Knowledge (SWEBOK), Chapter on Software Engineering Management
13.Which of the following methods is an example of dynamic analysis?
A. Piloting
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B. Peer reviews
C. Quality gates
D. Mathematical proofs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis involves testing and evaluation of a program by executing data in real-time.
Piloting, in this context, refers to a technique where the system is used in a controlled environment to
evaluate its performance and functionality under actual operating conditions. This falls under dynamic
analysis because it involves running the software to check for issues, as opposed to static analysis
methods which involve code review without execution.
Peer reviews and quality gates are static analysis techniques, where the code is inspected without
execution. Mathematical proofs are formal methods that also fall under static analysis.
Reference: IEEE Standard for Software Verification and Validation (IEEE 1012).
"Software Engineering: A Practitioner's Approach" by Roger S. Pressman.
14.Static analysis tools are used to evaluate
A. requirements and design
B. software builds and test cases
C. test procedures and packaging
D. documentation and source code
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static analysis tools are used to evaluate documentation and source code. These tools analyze the
code without executing it, looking for potential errors, coding standard violations, security
vulnerabilities, and other issues.
By reviewing the source code and associated documentation, static analysis helps in identifying
problems early in the development process, improving code quality and reducing the likelihood of
defects in the final product.
Reference: "Code Complete: A Practical Handbook of Software Construction" by Steve McConnell
"Static Analysis: Results from the Static Analysis Tool Exposition (SATE) IV" by Paul E. Black,
Elizabeth Fong, et al.
15.What type of technology- is designed to provide organizational partners with real-time access to
information on a business-to-business architecture?
A. Embedded system
B. Encrypted email
C. Extranet
D. Internet
Answer: C
Explanation:
An extranet is a private network that uses Internet protocols and public telecommunication systems to
securely share part of a business's information or operations with suppliers, vendors, partners,
customers, or other businesses. It provides real-time access to information and fosters collaboration
between organizations.
Reference: Turban, E., Volonino, L., & Wood, G. "Information Technology for Management".
16.Which of the following lifecycle models is designed to mitigate risks during development?
A. Incremental
B. Spiral
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C. Waterfall
D. Rapid application development
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Spiral lifecycle model is specifically designed to mitigate risks during development. This model
combines iterative development with systematic risk management. Each iteration, or "spiral," involves
planning, risk analysis, engineering, and evaluation. By continuously assessing and addressing risks
at each stage, the Spiral model helps to identify and mitigate potential issues early, ensuring a more
reliable and flexible development process.
Reference: Boehm, Barry W. "A Spiral Model of Software Development and Enhancement." ACM
SIGSOFT Software Engineering Notes, vol. 11, no. 4, 1986. Pressman, Roger S. "Software
Engineering: A Practitioner's Approach." 8th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2014.
17.Which of the following types of test coverage is most appropriatewhen the objective is to
determine if the software has any problems handling all the required possible hardware and software
designs?
A. State
B. Interface
C. Data domain
D. Platform configuration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Platform configuration testing ensures that the software works correctly across different hardware and
software environments.
Objective: The primary goal is to verify that the software can handle all the required hardware and
software configurations it is expected to run on.
Comprehensive Testing: This type of coverage involves testing the software on various combinations
of operating systems, browsers, hardware devices, and other configurations to ensure compatibility
and performance.
Identification of Issues: It helps in identifying issues that may arise due to differences in the
environments, which can be crucial for software that needs to run on multiple platforms.
Reference: "Software Testing Techniques, 2nd Edition" by Boris Beizer.
18.Coverage monitors are used during which of the following types of testing?
A. Black-box
B. White-box
C. Stress
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Coverage monitors are tools used to measure the extent to which the source code of a program is
executed when a particular test suite runs. This is a key aspect of white-box testing, which involves
testing the internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality (which is
the focus of black-box testing).
Coverage monitoring helps in identifying parts of the code that are not executed by a set of test
cases, ensuring thorough testing and identifying untested paths.
Reference: "Software Testing: Principles and Practices" by Naresh Chauhan "Software Testing
Techniques" by Boris Beizer
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19.A software maintenance release is conducted to deliver new
A. features
B. functionality
C. defect corrections
D. software products
Answer: A
Explanation:
Outsourcing is a business practice where a company hires an external organization to perform tasks,
handle operations, or provide services. One key advantage of outsourcing is that it allows the primary
company to focus its resources on its core competencies. By delegating non-core activities to external
specialists, the company can concentrate on what it does best, thereby enhancing efficiency,
innovation, and competitive advantage in its primary market.
Reference: "The Outsourcing Revolution" by Michael F. Corbett IEEE Software Engineering Body of
Knowledge (SWEBOK), Chapter on Software Engineering Management
20.In agile development, requirements changes are
A. discussed and incorporated during the daily stand up
B. implemented in the next sprint to enable rapid feature delivery
C. added to the product backlog and prioritized by the product owner
D. reviewed and approved by stakeholders in a configuration control board
Answer: C
Explanation:
In agile development, changes to requirements are a common and expected part of the process. The
product backlog, which is a prioritized list of tasks and requirements for the project, is the main tool for
managing these changes.
Requirement Identification: New requirements or changes are identified during various stages of the
development process, often during interactions with stakeholders or as the team gains a deeper
understanding of the project.
Product Backlog: These new requirements are then added to the product backlog. The product
backlog is managed by the product owner, who is responsible for maintaining its order of priority
based on the project's goals and stakeholder feedback.
Prioritization: The product owner prioritizes the backlog items to ensure that the most valuable and
important features are addressed first. This prioritization helps in managing scope and delivering
value incrementally.
Sprint Planning: During sprint planning, the team selects items from the top of the product backlog to
include in the next sprint, based on their capacity and the priority set by the product owner.
Reference: "Agile Estimating and Planning" by Mike Cohn.
21.Which of the following factors is important in a software product m terms of its adaptability?
A. Efficiency
B. Accessibility
C. Trainability
D. Portability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Portability refers to the ease with which software can be transferred from one environment to another.
It is a critical factor in a software product's adaptability as it determines how well the software can
function across different platforms, operating systems, or hardware configurations. High portability
ensures that the software can be easily adapted to new environments without significant modification,
thereby extending its usability and market reach.
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Reference: ISO/IEC 25010:2011, Systems and Software Engineering - Systems and Software Quality
Requirements and Evaluation (SQuaRE) - System and Software Quality Models. Sommerville, Ian.
"Software Engineering." 10th Edition, Addison-Wesley, 2015.
22.Which of the following benefits is associated with using the iterative model?
A. It can be tailored to the needs of the project and organization.
B. It does not require knowledge of all the requirements up front.
C. It correlates directly to the deliverables of software development.
D. It focuses on exploring options early by feedback through prototyping
Answer: B
Explanation:
The iterative model benefits projects by allowing development to start without having all the
requirements fully defined upfront. This model supports ongoing refinement through repeated cycles
(iterations) of planning, development, and feedback. Each iteration builds upon previous work,
allowing teams to adapt to changes and new information, which is particularly useful in projects with
evolving requirements or high uncertainty.
23.Maintenance activities are commonly characterized as
A. technological
B. definitive
C. corrective
D. predictive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Maintenance activities in software engineering are primarily categorized as corrective. This means
that the maintenance is focused on identifying and fixing defects in the software after it has been
deployed. Corrective maintenance involves:
Bug Fixing: Addressing issues reported by users or identified through testing.
Error Correction: Rectifying faults in the software that cause incorrect or unexpected behavior.
Corrective maintenance ensures that the software remains functional and performs as expected over
time.
Reference: IEEE Standard for Software Maintenance
Software Maintenance: Concepts and Practice by Penny Grubb and Armstrong A. Takang
24.As a side job: a trio of software quality' engineers developed a database management system for
XYZ, a non-competing company and subsequently packaged it for commercial sale as DBM
Solutions. The engineers supervisor read about the new system in a trade magazine and asked the
engineers for their opinion on whether to buy DBM Solutions.
What would be the most appropriate way for the engineers to respond to this situation?
A. Explain their role in developing the software and ask to be excused from participating in the
purchase decision.
B. Advise XYZ about their company's interest in the software and ask XYZ to make a presentation of
the software
C. Advise their supervisor to buy the software., based on the fact that the product will meet the
company's requirements.
D. Offer to examine the software, evaluate it with respect to the company’s requirements, and report
on the findings
Answer: A
Explanation:
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The engineers face a conflict of interest since they developed the software in question. The most
appropriate response is to disclose their involvement and recuse themselves from the decision-
making process to maintain integrity and avoid any appearance of bias or self-dealing. According to
IEEE Code of Ethics, engineers should avoid conflicts of interest and be transparent aboutany
potential conflicts.
Reference: IEEE Code of Ethics, Section III.
25.Conflict in teams can be useful when it
A. establishes decision-making patterns
B. speeds decision-making
C. produces new information
D. focuses management s attention on the team
Answer: C
Explanation:
Conflict in teams can be useful when it produces new information.
Here's a detailed explanation: Constructive Conflict: When managed properly, conflict can lead to the
exchange of diverse ideas and perspectives, resulting in innovative solutions.
Enhanced Problem-Solving: Conflict can encourage critical thinking and problem-solving by
challenging assumptions and encouraging deeper analysis.
Team Dynamics: Healthy conflict can improve team dynamics by fostering open communication and
improving understanding among team members.
Avoiding Groupthink: By encouraging different viewpoints, conflict helps in avoiding groupthink and
leads to better decision-making.
Reference: "The Five Dysfunctions of a Team: A Leadership Fable" by Patrick Lencioni.
"Crucial Conversations: Tools for Talking When Stakes Are High" by Kerry Patterson, Joseph Grenny,
Ron McMillan, and Al Switzler.
26.Results from a process audit show that the requirements group does not control changes to its
software specifications.
Which of the following basic requirements should be added to the software configuration
management (SCM) policy?
A. SCM must be implemented throughout the project's lifecycle.
B. SCM must be implemented for externally deliverable software products
C. Responsibility- for SCM must be explicitly assigned for each project
D. Each project must have an established repository for storing configuration items.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When the requirements group does not control changes to software specifications, a basic
requirement is to assign explicit responsibility for software configuration management (SCM) for each
project.
Here's why:
Clear Accountability: Assigning explicit responsibility ensures that someone is accountable for
managing and controlling changes.
Consistency in Process: This ensures consistent application of SCM practices across different
projects. Improved Control: Clear responsibility helps in better monitoring and controlling changes,
reducing the risk of unauthorized or untracked changes.
Policy Enforcement: Facilitates the enforcement of SCM policies and procedures, ensuring
compliance and integrity of the project.
Reference: "Software Configuration Management Patterns: Effective Teamwork, Practical Integration"
by Stephen P. Berczuk and Brad Appleton.
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"Software Configuration Management Strategies and Rational ClearCase: A Practical Introduction" by
Brian A. White.
27.Which of the following techniques will improve the accuracy of data collection the most?
A. Automating the data evaluation process
B. Training staff m the data gathering process
C. Defining the data gathering time frame
D. Analyzing post-project data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Automation in Data Evaluation: Automating the data evaluation process helps to eliminate human
error, ensures consistency, and increases the efficiency of data collection.
Training Staff: While important, training staff can still lead to variability in data collection due to human
error and subjective judgment.
Defining Time Frames: Helps in organizing the data collection process but does not inherently
improve the accuracy of data.
Post-Project Analysis: Useful for insights but does not directly improve the accuracy of ongoing data
collection.
Conclusion: Automation ensures precision, consistency, and objectivity in data collection, making it
the most effective technique for improving accuracy. Reference from software quality engineering
practices highlight the benefits of using automated tools for data collection to minimize errors and
improve reliability.
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