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Zscaler ZDTA Exam
Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator
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1.Which is an example of Inline Data Protection?
A. Preventing the copying of a sensitive document to a USB drive.
B. Preventing the sharing of a sensitive document in OneDrive.
C. Analyzing a customer’s M365 tenant for security best practices.
D. Blocking the attachment of a sensitive document in webmail.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Inline Data Protection is the process of inspecting data as it transits the network in real time, enforcing
policies that prevent sensitive data from being leaked or transmitted improperly. Blocking the attachment
of a sensitive document in webmail represents inline data protection because it intercepts and controls
data transmission at the network level, stopping sensitive content before it leaves the organization.
Preventing copying to a USB drive is endpoint control and does not happen inline in network traffic.
Preventing sharing in OneDrive is cloud access security broker (CASB) activity, often done through API
integrations, not inline network control. Analyzing M365 tenant security is an audit or advisory activity, not
real-time inline protection.
Therefore, the correct example of inline data protection in Zscaler's cloud security services is blocking the
attachment of a sensitive document in webmail.
2.Which attack type is characterized by a commonly used website or service that has malicious content
like malicious JavaScript running on it?
A. Watering Hole Attack
B. Pre-existing Compromise
C. Phishing Attack
D. Exploit Kits
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWatering Hole Attack targets users by compromising a website or service that is commonly visited by
the intended victims. The attacker injects malicious content such as malicious JavaScript or malware into
the website, so when the user visits the site, their system gets infected. This attack relies on the trust
users have in popular or legitimate websites and exploits it by turning those sites into infection vectors.
Pre-existing Compromise refers to attacks where the target environment is already compromised before
the attack is recognized, but it does not specifically describe malicious content injected into popular
websites. Phishing Attack involves deceiving users to click malicious links or reveal credentials, not
compromising websites directly. Exploit Kits are automated tools that scan for vulnerabilities and deliver
exploits but are not characterized by the use of commonly used websites hosting malicious scripts.
The study guide clearly explains Watering Hole Attacks as a method where attackers infect trusted
websites frequented by target users to deliver malicious payloads.
3.What is the name of the feature that allows the platform to apply URL filtering even when a Cloud APP
control policy explicitly permits a transaction?
A. Allow Cascading
B. Allow and Quarantine
C. Allow URL Filtering
D. Allow and Scan
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The feature that allows Zscaler to apply URL filtering even when a Cloud App control policy explicitly
permits a transaction is called Allow Cascading. This feature ensures that even if a cloud application is
permitted by the Cloud App control policy, the URL filtering policy can still be enforced. This is useful in
cases where granular URL control is needed on top of cloud app permissions, providing layered security
controls.
The study guide clearly explains that Allow Cascading enables URL filtering policies to cascade or take
precedence and thus still inspect and potentially block URLs even if the cloud app is allowed by policy.
This allows administrators to fine-tune access and ensure additional inspection layers on web traffic.
4.Which proprietary technology does Zscaler use to calculate risk attributes dynamically for websites?
A. Third-Party Sandbox
B. Zscaler PageRisk
C. Browser Isolation Feedback Form
D. Deception Controller
Answer: B
Explanation:
Zscaler uses a proprietary technology called Zscaler PageRisk to calculate risk attributes dynamically for
websites. PageRisk assesses the risk level of a website based on a variety of dynamic factors, including
the site's content, reputation, and behavior, helping to identify potentially harmful or suspicious sites in
real time.
This dynamic risk scoring allows Zscaler to enforce security policies more effectively, blocking or allowing
access based on calculated risk rather than static lists alone. The study guide specifies that PageRisk is
integral to the platform's adaptive security posture and URL filtering capabilities.
5.Which list of protocols is supported by Zscaler for Privileged Remote Access?
A. RDP, VNC and SSH
B. RDP, SSH and DHCP
C. SSH, DNS and DHCP
D. RDP, DNS and VNC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Zscaler supports RDP, VNC, and SSH protocols for Privileged Remote Access. These are commonly
used protocols for remote management and privileged user sessions, allowing secure access to internal
applications or systems without exposing the network or requiring VPN connections.
The study guide clearly states that Privileged Remote Access capabilities focus on these protocols to
ensure secure, monitored, and controlled remote sessions for administrators and privileged users,
supporting remote desktop and shell access securely.
6.An administrator would like users to be able to use the corporate instance of a SaaS application.
Which of the following allows an administrator to make that distinction?
A. Out-of-band CASB
B. Cloud application control
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C. URL filtering with SSL inspection
D. Endpoint DLP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud application control is the feature that allows an administrator to distinguish and enforce policies
specifically on the corporate instance of a SaaS application. This enables granular control, allowing users
to access the approved corporate SaaS while restricting access to personal or unauthorized instances.
Out-of-band CASB generally provides visibility but does not enforce real-time distinctions in this context.
URL filtering with SSL inspection and Endpoint DLP serve different purposes, such as content inspection
and endpoint data protection, respectively.
The study guide explains that Cloud Application Control policies identify and enforce controls based on
SaaS application instances, providing precise policy enforcement aligned with corporate SaaS usage
requirements.
7.How does Zscaler Risk360 quantify risk?
A. The number of risk events is totaled by location and combined.
B. A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer
average.
C. Time to mitigate each identified risk is totaled, averaged, and tracked to show ongoing trends.
D. A risk score is computed for each of the four stages of breach.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Zscaler Risk360 quantifies risk by computing a risk score that is based on the number of remediations
needed in comparison to the industry peer average. This approach allows organizations to understand
their relative security posture by evaluating how many issues require remediation and benchmarking that
against peers in the industry. This methodology enables prioritized risk management and provides context
around the urgency and scale of remediation activities necessary to reduce risk.
Unlike simply counting risk events or focusing on time to mitigate, Risk360 uses this comparative
remediation-based scoring to give a comprehensive view of risk. It does not compute separate scores for
each of the four breach stages but rather aggregates remediation efforts and benchmarks them to
industry standards.
This is confirmed by the study guide's explanation of Risk360's scoring method, highlighting the use of
remediation counts compared to peers as the basis for risk scoring.
8.What is the recommended minimumnumber of App connectors needed to ensure resiliency?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The recommended minimum number of App connectors to ensure resiliency in Zscaler Private Access is
2. Having at least two App connectors provides redundancy, so if one connector fails or is unavailable, the
other can continue to provide access without interruption. This recommendation is critical to maintaining
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high availability and fault tolerance for internal application access.
The study guide specifies this minimum to ensure continuity and reliability of application access through
ZPA.
9.What method does Zscaler Identity Threat Detection and Response use to gather information about AD
domains?
A. Scanning network ports
B. Running LDAP queries
C. Analyzing firewall logs
D. Packet sniffing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Zscaler Identity Threat Detection and Response gathers information about Active Directory (AD) domains
primarily by running LDAP queries. LDAP queries allow the system to retrieve user and domain
information directly and accurately from the AD infrastructure, enabling detection and analysis of identity
threats and suspicious activities.
The study guide highlights the use of LDAP queries as a reliable and standard method for accessing AD
domain data in this security context.
10.What does a DLP Engine consist of?
A. DLP Policies
B. DLP Rules
C. DLP Dictionaries
D. DLP Identifiers
Answer: C
Explanation:
The DLP (Data Loss Prevention) Engine in Zscaler consists of DLP Dictionaries. These dictionaries
contain the sensitive data patterns, keywords, and identifiers used to detect sensitive information in
network traffic. They serve as the foundation for defining what content should be inspected and protected.
While DLP policies and rules govern how the engine acts, the engine itself fundamentally depends on
these dictionaries to identify sensitive data accurately. The study guide states that DLP Dictionaries are
key components that power the detection capabilities within the engine.
11.A user is accessing a private application through Zscaler with SSL Inspection enabled.
Which certificate will the user see on the browser session?
A. No certificate, as the session is decrypted by the Service Edge
B. A self-signed certificate from Zscaler
C. Real Server Certificate
D. Zscaler generated MITM Certificate
Answer: D
Explanation:
When SSL Inspection is enabled and a user accesses a private application through Zscaler, the user will
see a Zscaler generated MITM (Man-In-The-Middle) Certificate on their browser session. Zscaler
intercepts and decrypts SSL/TLS traffic at the Service Edge and then re-encrypts it before forwarding it to
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the client, presenting its own certificate to maintain the security of the connection while enabling
inspection.
This allows Zscaler to inspect encrypted traffic for threats and policy enforcement transparently without
exposing the original server’s certificate. The study guide clarifies this mechanism under SSL Inspection
details.
12.What Malware Protection setting can be selected when setting up a Malware Policy?
A. Isolate
B. Bypass
C. Block
D. Do Not Decrypt
Answer: C
Explanation:
The valid Malware Protection setting selectable when configuring a Malware Policy in Zscaler is Block.
This setting instructs the platform to block malicious files or activities detected by malware scanning
engines.
Other settings like Isolate or Bypass are not standard malware policy actions in Zscaler’s malware
protection configuration. The “Do Not Decrypt” option relates to SSL inspection settings, not malware
policy actions. The study guide specifies “Block” as the primary malware policy action to enforce
protection.
13.Which are valid criteria for use in Access Policy Rules for ZPA?
A. Group Membership, ZIA Risk Score, Domain Joined, Certificate Trust
B. Username, Trusted Network Status, Password, Location
C. SCIM Group, Time of Day, Client Type, Country Code
D. Department, SNI, Branch Connector Group, Machine Group
Answer: A
Explanation:
Valid criteria for Access Policy Rules in ZPA include Group Membership, ZIA Risk Score, Domain Joined,
and Certificate Trust. These attributes allow granular policy decisions based on user identity, device
posture, and risk context.
Options including password are invalid as passwords are not used as policy criteria; similarly, SNI and
Branch Connector Group are more relevant to other controls. The study guide lists these user and device
attributes explicitly as policy criteria within ZPA access policies.
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