Exercícios validação diploma Canadá

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1
Mock 3 part 1
1. A 34 year old patient presents
with chief complain that food gets
stuck between his 16 and 17.
Intraoral examination revealed that
all teeth in first quadrant are vital.
16 has a distal overhang due to a
poorly contoured 5 year old
amalgam. Probing depth od distal of
16 and mesial of 17 measured 7 mm
on buccallingual. PD in all remaining
teeth are within normal limits. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
a)Local aggressive periodontits
b)local chronic periodontitis
c)vertical root fracture
d)perio-endo lesion
e)vertical bone defect
2. Which of the following is the
recommended RPM and torque for
preparation osteomtomy prior to
implant placement?
a) 60 RPM, 85 Ncm
b) 500RPM, 85Ncm
c) 60RPM, 35 Ncm
d) 500RPM, 35 Ncm
3. Which of the following is not a
feature of the causative agent of
tuberculosis?
a) Gram +
b) Motile
c) Rod shaped
d) anaerobic
e) intracellular pathogen
(since TB is a disease that affects
primarily the lungs, mycobacterium
tuberculosis should not be anaerobic)
4. A direct acting cholimimetic that
is lipid soluble and often used in the
treatment of glaucoma?
a) Acetilcholine
b) bethanecol
c) physiostigmine
d) pilocarpine
5.Which of the following
temperatures should not be exceded
in osteotomy preparation for implant
placement?
a) 25 C
b) 35C
c) 45C (actually 47C)
d) 55C
e) 65C
6. An aged patient with high caries
index has a class V carious lesion
extending onto the root surface. The
material of choice to restore is:
a) composite resin
b) silicate cement
c) GI cement
d) polycarboxylate cement
7. Which part of tooth is least
resistant to caries?
a) Surface enamel
b) dentin
c) DEJ
d) cementum
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8. A 7 year old patient presented
with discoloured maxillary left
central incisor. Her dental history
revealed fracture in 21 when she
fells 8 months ago. Vitality test is
negative and periapical and
radiograph showed an open apex. 21
has a grey hue with large class IV
restoration. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Apexogenesis and
revascularization
b) apexogenesis and conventional
non surgical RCT
c) apexification and non surgical RCT
d) apexification and revascularization
9. Procaine undergo
biotransformation in each place,
except one:
 A) liver
 B) lung
C) plasma
d) kidneys
10.Pick up type of impression
copyings:
a) need no modification of impression
tray
b) remain in the impression when
removed
c) are always more precise than
transfer copyings
d) are particulary useful in the
posterior
11. During the pharyngeal phase of
swallowing, motor neurons in the
swallowing center are activated to
 A) open the palatopharyngeal folds.
 B) initiate the secondary peristaltic
wave.
 C) open the lower esophageal sphincter.
 D) inhibit respiration
12. The sensation of sour is
mediated by
 A) activation of T1R3 receptors
(umami/sweet) T1R2 – SWEET ONLY
 B) Gustducin (bitter/sweet/umami)
 C) Transducin (eye, sees black and
white)
 D) protons blocking K+ channels.
13. Which catecholamine is
sinthetic?
a) Dopamine
b) Epinephrine
c) Levonordefrin
d) Norepinephrine
Triciclic antidepressants with levo is
contraindicated. MAO inhibitors are not
affected by exougenous epi.
14. After preparation of a endo
maxillary anterior tooth to receive a
pre fabricated post and core
followed by a crown, the amount of
remaining tooth structure primarily
influences the:
(ferule is to strengthen the tooth
post just retains the core
tooth weakened – due to loss of tooth
structure and dehydration of dentin)
a) retention of crown
b) retention of core
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c) fracture resistance of the tooth
d) fracture resistance of the core
15. Arterial blood flows continuously
through capillaries during both
systole and diastole because:
a) arteries possesses compliant walls
b) arterioles can regulate their
diameters
c) veins possess valves on their inner
surficie
d) the beating heart spend more time
in diastole than systole
e) blood undergoes laminar flow
through capillary beds
16. Implant survival:
a) means implant success
b) means that it is still present in the
mouth after a period of time.
c) means that it is still present and
clinically satisfactory after a period of
time
d) means that implant requires some
form of treatment to avoid failure
17. What is the theoretical
interocclusal space that should be
kept as a relief when restoring a
implant supported crown:
 a) 10 um
 b) 13 um
 c) 20 um
 d) 23 um
18. Which of the following
statements concerning the airway is
correct?
a) sympathetic fibers constrict the
bronchioles
b) the trachea is a membrane posteriorly
to accomodate the pulse of aorta
(esophagus, not aorta)
c) the right primary bronchus forms 2
secondary bronchi (3)
d) the aspiration of a foreign body is most
likely to fall in the right primary lung
(straighter)
19.A 75 year old female is being
treated for oral lichen planus with
topical corticoesteroids. She has
also low vitamin D. The most likely
cause of a reduced alveolar bone
mass in this patient is:
a)post menopausal osteoporosis
b) senile osteoporosis
c) drug-induced osteoporosis
d)osteomalacia
20.Which of the following drug is a
natural alkaloid obtained from
opium?
a) Hydromorphine
b) meperidine
c) methadone
d) codeine
e) morphine
21. Which of the following
conditions are not related in terms
of etiology
a) plaque induced gingivitis and chronic
periodontitis
b) plaque induced gingivitis and
aggressive periodontitis
c) plaque induced gingivitis and gingivitis
modified by systemic factors
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d) plaque induced gingivitis and
desquamative gingivitis.
22. Which of the following cyst is
most likely to undergo
transformation into ameloblastoma?
 a) Radicular
 b) dentigerous
 c) fissural
 d) traumatic
23.As you were placing an implant
after completing osteotomy in a
mandibular arch, you noticed that
you reached the desired torque
while ¼ of the implant was still
exposed. Which of the following is
the most appropriate course of
action?
a) Remove the implant, increase the
intire width of the ostotomy,
reinsert the implant.
b) Remove the implant, increase the
width of the crestal cortical bone,
reinsert the implant.
c) Remove the implant, increase the
depth of the crestal cortical bone,
reinsert the implant.
d) Abort procedure, allow for 3
months healing and attempt
placement again.
24. A 54 year old poorly controlled
diabetic patient presents with
overhanging fillings and
overcontoured crowns in
16/27/11/21. PD revealed excessive
generalized bleeding on probing.
Patient has minimum plaque build
up and high compliance with oral
hygiene. Which of the following is
most likely the cause?
a) Food debris
b) calculus
c) systemic factors
d) poor restorations
25. Enamel pearls form when:
a) ameloblasts migrate apically down the
root
b)cells of the epithelial root sheat do not
migrate away from dentin
c) cells of the dental folicule fail to
develop.
d) epithelial rests transforms into
ameloblasts vesicles.
26. The initial appearance of
successful apicoetomy would show
on radiograph as:
a) radiolucent area
b) woven bone (second image) - matures
into lamellar bone or scar
c) cortical bone around surgical site
d)sclerotic dentin
27. Osteomyelitis begin as an
inflammation of:
a) cortical bone
b) periosteum
c) medullar bone
d)periosteum and inner cortex
28. Perimplantitis:
a) ins similar to gingivitis
b) Cannot be treated
c) is usually limited to superficial soft
tissue
d) spreads rapidly through bone
5
29.The radiographs of a 9 y old with
tooth 11 completed erupted and
tooth 21unerupted revealed a
pallatal located mesiodens. The
most appropriate management is:
(80% of permanent maxillary teeth will
spontaneously passive erupt after
extraction of mesiodens)
a)monitor the eruption of 21 for another
year
b)uncover mesiodens, wait for eruption,
then extract it
c) extract and allow passive eruption of
21.
d)extract mesiodens + orhtodontically
extrude 21
30. Which of the following is true
about supra eruption of unopposed
molars?
a)supra eruption occurs 60% of the time
(92%)
b) supraeruption is more prevalent in
mandibular arch
c)unopposed molars have a mean of
supra eruption of 3 mm.
d)attachment loss is one of the main
predictors.
31. Smoking can play a destructive
role in all of the following, except:
a) gingivitis modified by systemic factors.
B)localized chronic periodontitis
c)generalized chronic periodontitis
d)localized aggressive periodontitis
e)generalized aggressive periodontitis
32. As you were preparing the
osteotomy for an implant placement
at 11, you perfurate the buccal
plate. Which of the following is the
correct sequence of steps?
a) Prepare new osteotomy with
correct angulation, instal the
implant and graft the area.
b) Prepare new osteotomy with
correct angulation, graft the area
and then install the implant 
c) install the implant until you see the
threads showing, then graft the
defect
d) abort the procedure, graft the area
of defect along with the entire
osteotomy, place the implant after
3 months using surgical and
radiographic stent
33.Following the removal of vital
pulp, the root canal is medicated
and sealed. The patient returns with
apical periodontitis. The most likely
cause is:
a) over instrumentation
b) lateral perfuration
c)pulp tissue left in root canal
d) infection
34.What is the most appropriate
treatment for a 4 year old patient
that lost all maxillary incisors?
a) No treatment (patient still have
canines in position holding space)
b) removable hawley appliance
c) fixed lingual hold arch
d) fixed Nance button appliance
35. One week after amalgam
restoration in a 44, the patient
complain about sharp pain of short
duration when eating or drinking
something cold. Teeth responds
normally to eletric pulp test and
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heat and radiography is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Hypercementosis
b) reversible pulpitis
c) pulpal microabscess
d) acute periradicular periodontitis
(this question was answer wrong during
the lecture, it cannot be reversible
pulpitis because the tests are normal.
Always trust the tests, not the patient)
36. Connective tissue fibers around
implant neck are:
a) perpendicular
b) not present because...
c) parallel to implant surface
d) multidirectional
37. A 40 year old female patient
presents with chief complain that
she experiences sharp pain and bad
taste on upper right side. Extra oral
examinations are normal. Intra oral
examination reveals a narrow pocket
of 9 mm mid buccal to 15, which had
RCT 2 years ago. The most likely
diagnosis of tooth 15 is:
a) acute apical abscess
b) chronic periapical abscess
c) periodontal abscess
d) vertical root fracture
e) endo-perio lesion
38. A 60 year old patient presents with
chief complain that he has unbearable
sensitivity...Miller class IV
a) subepithelial connective tissue
graft
b) free gingival graft
c) lateral positioned graft
d) coronal positioned graft
e) extraction
39.Patient has acute abscess for
which he was prescribe amoxicillin
for 7 days without improvement.
Culture and sensitivity tests
revealed presence of Clostridia.
What is the antibiotics of choice?
a) Clindamicine
b) metronidazole
c) clarithromycin
d) azithromycin
40. The microscopic appearance of
the central giant cell granuloma of
jaw is similar to what lesion?
a)hyperparathyroidism
b) Paget’s disease
c)cleidocranial dysplasia
d)hyperpituirarism
41. Painless erythematous lesion
seen after 3 weeks after crown
placement on maxillary lateral
incisor:
a. pyogenic granuloma
b. granular cell tumor 
c. metastatic tumor
d. periodontal abscess
42. The minimum interarch space for
a fixed implant supported prosthesis
is:
a. 4 mm
b. 6 mm
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c. 7 mm
d. 12 mm
43. Which of the following is a
tumor of skin, not likely to
metastisize.
a) malignant melanoma
b) basal cell carcinoma
c) fibroma
44. Which of the following is the
mecanism of scopolamine?
a) Irreversible antagonist at nicotinic
receptors
b) Irreversible antagonist at
muscarinic receptors
c) Reversible antagonist at nicotinic
receptors
d) Reversible antagonist at
muscarinic receptors
45. Metastasis from carcinoma of
tongue by blood stream is more
likely whe the carcinoma involves
the:
a) anterior third
b) middle third (just think about what
part of the tongue is attached to the floor
of the mouth)
c) posterior third
d) lateral margin
46. A patient presents with acute
abscess in 46 with right
submandibular abscess. Patient just
finished amoxicillin for upper
respiratory tract infection. Which of
the following is the antibiotics of
choice for acute abscess?
a) Amoxicillin 250 mg TID for 7 days
b) Amoxicillin 500 mg TID for 10 days
c) Clindamycine 150 mg QID for 5
days
d) Clindamycine 300 mg TID for 7
days
e) Clarithromycin 250mg BID for 7
days
(note: if the patien is taking amoxicillin or
has finished less than 10 days ago, you
have to change the atb. First choice
clinda, 2nd azythromicin)
47. Conversion of which of the
following furcation into its
subsequent would constitute an
acceptable line of therapy?
a)I
B)II
C)III (tunnelization)
D)IV
48. The significant proporties of GIC
include:
a) chemical bond to enamel and
dentin
b) biocompatibility
c) release of fluoride with the set of
material
d) all of the above
49. Osteossarcoma radiographic
appearance:
a) sun burst appearance
b) soap bubble (ameloblastoma)
c) cotton wool
d) ground glass (fibrous displasia)
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50. Squamous cell carcinoma with
the best prognosis is:
a)palate
b)lip
c)tongue
d)floor of the mouth
51.When selecting an implant:
a) it’s best to select the longest implant
possible, because it survives best
b)it’s best to select the widest implant
possible, because it survives best
c) implant surface selection is critical
d) at least 1 mm of bone lingual or buccal
must remain for it to survive.
52. The sign or symptom most
suggestive of metastatic disease is:
a) paresthesia
b) sudden swelling
c) root resorption
d) diffuse radioluncency
53. Which of the following does not
commonly survive in a periapical
lesion?
a) Pseudomonas (respiratory,
aerobic)
b) streptococcus
c) porphyromonas
d) actinomyces
54. A patient with history of asthma
taking salbutamol inhaler and oral
prednisone presents to your office
for extraction of an impacted third
molar. Which of the following
analgesics should be used?
(severa asthma – no NSAIDS
codeine over oxycodone)
mild and moderate asthma – Ibuprofen
a) Ibuprofen 600 mg q 4-6 h prn pain
b) Oxycodone 5 mg q 6-8 h prn pain
c) Tylenol 3 q 4-6 h prn pain
d) Mepridine 50 mg q 4-6 h prn pain
55. A patient with renal failure,
which of the following does need a
dose interval adjustment?
(kidney metabolism)
tetracycline completely avoid in renal
problems
metronidazole and vancomycin worst for
liver.
a) Penicillin
b) metronidazol (liver)
c) erythromicin
d) clindamycin
56. All of the following are
asscociated with a true periodontal
pocket, except:
a) Aggressive periodontitis
b) Chronic periodontitis
c) perio-endo lesion
d) periodontal abscess
57. Which of the following drugs if
given to patient with chronic
hepatitis C will most likely cause
toxicity?
a) metronidazole
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58. Factorsthat may predispose to
maxillary sinusitis includes all of the
following, except:
a) chronic periradicular periodontitis
b) oroantral communication
c) Wegener’s granulomatosis
d) acute periodontitis (inflammation,
not infection)
59. After placing brackets in maxilla
and mandible, a 16 y old patient
returns the next day with severe
pain. What is te most acceptable
medication?
Ortho – no NSAIDS
a) Ibuprofen 600 mg q 4-6 h prn pain
b) Acetaminophen 500 mg q 4-6 h
prn pain
c) Tylenol 3 q 4-6 h prn pain
d) Percocet q 4-6 h prn pain
60. The ability to aspirate blood is
largely influenced by the:
a)gauge of the needle
b) patient’s blood type
c) weight of the syringe
d)type of LA
61.Which of the following statement
is true regarding metronidazole
a) serum levels are the same wheter
oral or IV
b) Excretion is severely impaired with
chronic renal disease (liver)
c) it is mainly used for aerobic
infections (anaerobic)
d) its mecanism of action is inhibition
of protein sunthesis
62. Which of the following bacteria is
targeted by metronidazole?
(anaerobic)
a) Neisseria
b) camphylobacter
c) capnocytophagia
d) eubacterium
e) bacillus
63.Which surface in the primary
molar requires more reduction for a
stainless steel crown?
a) Occlusal
b) buccal
c) lingual
d) proximal
64.Patient presents for extraction of
48. He has history of peptic ulcer
and allergy to morphine. Which
analgesic is the most acceptable for
this patient?
a) Naproxen
b) Tylenol
c) Percocet
d) Meperidine
e) Ibuprofen
65. A 28 y old patient presents with
pain and mobility of anterior inferior
teeth. Intra oral examination
revealed cratered interdental
paiplla, ulcerated gingiva and
exposed interproximal bone. When
you consult the physician, which is
the most likely diagnosis?
a) DIABETES (associated with NUG)
b) osteoporosis
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c) AIDS
d) medication related necrosis of the jaw
66. Distal cantilevers on implant
prosthesis:
a) always possible, with no limitations
b) to be avoided whenever possible
and limited tho short spans
c) always detrimental...
d) possible when a removable full
denture opposes the implant
prosthesis
67. Introduction of which of the
following bacteria in the subgingival
plaque helps slow down disease.
a) Campylobacter
b) capnocytophaga
c) veilonella
d) streptococcus
68. A 30 y old with spontaneous
bleeding gum with grey membrane
a) p. gingivalis and p intermedia
b) p gingivalis, c gracilis, t forsythia
c) f. nucleatum, t denticola
d) eubacterium, p gingivalis
NUG/NUP: Spirochetes/Prev,
intermedia/fuso. nucleatum/treponema
69. After prescribing clindamicine
for a patient, he develops severe
case of clostridium difficile, for
which he was hospitalized. Which
will be the antibiotics given in the
hospital facility?
a) Amoxicillin
b) tetracycline
c) vancomycin
d) clarithormicine
e) moxifloxacin
70. Compared to non-smokers, the
relative failure of implants in
smokers is:
a) equal
b) 2 x more
c)3 x more
d)4 x more
71. Which of the following is most
likely to turn malignant:
a) intradermal nevus
b) junctional nevus
c) L. planus
d) papilloma
72. When observing a radiograph for
a implant patient, you see a
horizontal dark line between the
implant and what seems to be the
abutment. What is most likely the
cause?
a) Normal
b) a sign of component loosening
c) a sign of peri implantitis
d) a sign of implant failure
73. A 20 y old man diagnosed with
acute rheumatic fever, started high
dose of aspirin. Patient presented
with high blood pH, low paCo2 and
low plasma bicarbonate content.
Which of the following acid-base
disturbance was most likely caused
by salicilate treatment?
a) Respiratory acidosis
b) respiratory alkalosis
c) metabolic acidosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
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e) mixed acidosis
74. Which of the following
antibiotics is least effective against
pseudomonas aeruginosas?
a) Piperacillin
b) tiracillin
c) cefepim
d)moxifloxacino
e) ciprofloxacino
75. Which of the following bacteria
share some properties with virus
infections?
a) S. Mutans
b) Campylobacter
c) Aa (also P. gingivalis)
d) Prev. intermedia
76. Which of the following is not
associated with dry mouth?
a) Dry mouth syndrome
b) Sjogren syndrome
c) Amyloidosis
d) sarcoidosis
e) None of the above
77. A 42 y old woman recovering
from breast cancer . She had sever
pain, from which she received
ketorolac IV. What is the drug
mecanism of ketorolac?
a) Drug binding to prostaglandin
receptors in the surgical area
b) decrease concentration of
prostaglandin in the surgical area
c) decrease of 02 radicals produced
in the surgical site
d) decrease concentration of
prostagladin in the cerebral cortex
78. Reddish gingiva is in all of the
following conditions, except:
a) leukemia
b) addison’s disease
c) mouth breathing
d) lichen planus
79.A patient underwent extensive
occluso therapy complains the next
day of pain in her right ear and
states she is unable to occlude her
posterior teeth on the right side.
There was no previous history of TMJ
disease or oclusal disarmony. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Anterior disc displacement of the
rifht TMJ
b) dislocation of the left TMJ resulting
in teeth from the left side
contacting first.
c) Ear infection affecting the function
of her right condyle, resulting in
her uncounsciously avoiding tooth
contact on the right side
80.Vancomicin and penicillin don’t
have cross allergenicity because:
a) Vancomycin acts on cell
membrane while penicillin acts on
the cell wall
b)
c) penicillin acts on transpeptidase
enzyme while vancomycin acts on
the precursor of the
transpeptidase enzyme
d) penicillin and vancomicin have
cross allergenicity
81. Localized aggressive and
localized chronic periodontitis can
be diferentiated by all of the
following, except
a) age of patient
b) rate of periodontal destruction
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c) subgingival Aa counts.
d) Amount of plaque deposits
82. Before the beggining of
treatment, an anxious patient was
given diazepam IV. Vital signs were
normal, but the patient has fallen
asleep and it’s not responsive to
verbal commands. What shoukd be
the most appropriate conduct?
a) Continue treatment as long as all
vital signs are normall
b) immediatly start positive pressure
02 delivery
c) stop the procedure and facilitate
the procedure to bring the patient
to the moderate sedation level
d) immediatly give reversal agents
83. Which of the followings
statements regarding periodontal
abscesses in NOT true?
a) Pain is localized
b) sensitivity to percussion is not
always positive
c) associated with vital pulp
d) there may be no radiographic
changes
e) smoking is a risk factor for
periodontal abscesses
84. The first event leading to
osseointegration that occurs after
implant placement is:
a) growth of new bone cells
b) formation of blood clot
c) growth of fibrous tissue
85. A 25 y old patient complains that
first molars are mobile and bother
when eating. Intra oral examination
reveals severe bone destruction in
teeth 16/26/36/46. Are other teeth
are normal. The most appropriate
conduct for this case is:
a) non surgical debridement
b) antibiotic therapy
c) non surgical debridement +
antibiotic therapy
d) extraction
86. In a endo treated tooth, which
surfaces are vertical root fractures
most commonly affected?
a) Mesial surface of maxillary 1st
molar
b) Distal surface of maxillary 1st molar
c) Mesial surface of mandibular 1st
molar
d) Distal surface of mandibular 1st
molar
87. Which of the following regarding
acyclovir and gancyclovir is false:
a) they can both target H. Simplex
b) they can both target Varicela-
zoster
c) they can both target
cytomegalovirusd) viruses are capable of developing
resistance to both
88. Which of the following regarding
chlorexidine is false:
a) no resistant strains of
microorganisms have been
observed
b) produce brown stains on lithium
disilicate restorations
c) formulations containing alcohol are
similar to alcohol-free formulations
in their effect against plaque
d) None of the above
89. A patient with history of chronic
periodontitis inflammation subsided
revealing black triangles but he
plaque control was not optimal.
Which of the following would be the
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best choice to clean interdental
spaces:
a) dental floss
b) interproximal brush
c) wooden toothpicks
d) rubber tips
90. When revaluating results of
Scaling and root planning after 4
weeks of therapy, the best indicator
of success is:
a) reduction of pocket depth
b) lack of bleeding on probing
c) root smoothness
d) absence of plaque
91. A 58 y old presents with
generalized recession. He smokes 6
pack a year. Intra oral examination
revealed minimal plaque.
Periodontal probing revealed to be
within limits withou bleeding on
probing. Which of the following
would be the correrct diagnosis?
a) Healthy periodontal status
b) health on a reduced periodontium
c) gingivitis associated with plaque
only
d) gingivitis modified by old age
e) generalized chronic periodontitis
92.53 year old taking only warfarin
and clopidogrel. Whats is the most
likely diagnosis?
a) MI
b) Stable angina
c) CVA cardiovascular accident
d) CHF
93. Patients presents missing teeth
31/32/42. He decides for a partial
fixed prosthesis. Which of the
following should be the tretament?
a) Using 33,34,41,43 as abutments
b) using 33,41,43 as abutments
c) exo 41, using 33,34,43,44 as
abutments
d) exo 41 using 33,43 as abutments
94. Patient with healthy gingiva and
3 mm sulcus depth. What is the
deepest a crown margin should be
placed subgingivally?
a) 0,5 mm
b) 1,0 mm
c) 2,0 mm
d) 3,0 mm
e) The margin should never be placed
subgingival
95. A 6 year old suffering from
influenza received medication for
the symptoms. On the fifth day, he
lapsed into a coma and died.
Autopsy disclosed fatty infiltration
of liver, heart and kidneysm as well
as cerebral edema. Which
medications was most likely the
cause?
a) Acetaminophen
b) ibuprofen
c) indomethacin
d) ketorolac
e) aspirin
96. Patient will undergo crown
lengthening before replacing a
defective crown on 36. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a) It will take at least 6 months for
new gingival position to became
stable
b) surgical crown lengthening is
slower than orthodontic eruption
14
c) bone must be removed from
36,36,37
d) surgical crown lengthening will
result in the margins being
transfered from the area of the
connective tissue attachment to
the area of the juntcional
epithelium (above)
97. Sulfonylureas are primary mode
of therapy in the treatment of:
a) insulin dependent type I diabetes
patient
b) diabetic patient exposed to severe
hepatic or renal dysfunction
c) dibetic pregnant women
d) patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
e) non-insulin dependent type 2
diabetic patients
98. Which of the following is the
most significant factor to consider
when chosing an open flap
debridement with apical positioning
between an open flap debridement
alone?
a) Amount of clinical attachment loss
b) depth of periodontal pocket
c) amount of attached gingiva
remaining
d) patient exhibiting low smile
99. Which of the following conditions
are more likely to cohexist with each
other?
a) DM, HTN, Hyperthyroidism
b) DM, HTN, hyperlipidemia
c) DM, Angina, renal failure
d) DM, HTN, asthma
100. You are carrying out a core
build up for you patient on tooth 27.
You must start the crown right away,
beacuse the patient does not have
time. Which material should you use
for the core?
a) GI cement
b) zinc oxide eugenol cement
c) admix amalgam
d) spherical amalgam
101. A patient presents to your clinic
after his crown fell out. Crown had
proper retention form but it had
sharp oclusoaxial line angle. Which
of the following would be the most
plausible explanation?
a) A cohesive failure within the
cement
b) a adhesive failure within the
cement
c) a adhesive failure between the
cement and restoration
d) A cohesive failure between the
cement and the tooth
102.Diagnostic of diabetes mellitus
include all of the following, except:
a) fasting hyperglycemia
b) polyuria
c) polydpsia
d) tinnitus
e) weight loss
103.Resorption of the alveolar ridge
after extraction occurs primarily at:
a) buccal plate
b) lingual plate
c) equally at the buccal and lingual
plate
d) the crest of the ridge
104. Which of the following
statements is false regarding rest
seats for removable partial denture?
a) The rest...
15
b) the angle between the rest seat
and the minor connector should be
obtuse to transmit forces to the
long axis of the tooth
c) the marginal ridge needs to be
lowered at least 2.5 mm for molars
and premolars.
105. In Kennedy II maxillary
removable partial denture, which of
the following does not provide
brancing and stabilization?
a) Guiding plane
b) indirect retainers
c) reciprocal claps
d) palatal plating
e) none of the above
106. The most appropriate occlusal
scheme for mandibular Kennedy
class II removable partial denture
opposing natural dentition would be:
a) unilateral balanced occlusion
b) bilateral balanced occlusion
c) dependent at the occlusal scheme
of the contralateral side
d) mutually protected occlusion
107. Pre treatment with which of the
following antibiotics could
compromise effectiveness of
penicillin?
a) Clindamycin (cidal-static)
b) Metronidazole
c) Cephalexin
d) Vancomycin
108. A 62 y old patient with cardiac
heart failure and hypertension
taking digoxin is upset because his
daughter is pregnant and decide to
take extra pills. Later, he’s found
uncounscious and is brought to
emergency. An eletrocardiogram will
show?
a) Acute MI
b) Atrial conduction arrythmia
c) pulmonary embolism
d) ventricular septal defect
e) centricular tachycardia
109. Tetracycline should not be
given in conjunction with warfarin
because:
a) Hepatic metabolism of warfarin will
be impared
b) Hepatic tetracycline of warfarin will
be impared
c) renal excretion of warfarin will be
impared
d) INR wil be increased
110. The lack of maturity of wich of
the following justifies respons in
children regarding gingivitis
a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) T lymphocytes
d) B lymphocytes
111. A patient with cardiac heart
failure taking digoxin, which
antibiotic is safe to use?
a) Tetracycline
b) erythromicin
c) clarithromicin
d) metronidazole
112. Retrograde amnesia is an effect
that is associated with:
a) barbiturates
b) benxodiazepines
c) opioids
d) none of the above
16
113.In a developing embryo, which
of the following is not derived from
neural crest?
a) Alveolar bone
b) periodontal ligament
c) cranial nerve
d) enamel
e) escromesenchyme
114. The axial wall of the class V
preparation is:
a) flat
b) concave
c) convex
d) convex only inciso cervically
115. Nitroglycerin, either directly or
through reflexes, results in
(decrease BP, increase cardiac force,
preload will decrease, vasoldilating
everywhere)
a) decrease heart rate
b) decrease venous capacitance
c) increase afterload
d) increase cardiac force
e) increase diastolic intramyocardial
fiber tension
116.The mineral content of newly
formed enamel is:
a)10 %
b) 30%
c)60%
d)70%
117. A 5 y old child presents to your
office with a painful tooth that his
mom says it is keeping him awake at
night. Intra oral examination reveals
a large cairous lesion in a lower left
D. After reviewing his medicalhistory, the mother tells you that he
has been treating active
tuberculosis. What would be the
most appropirate management of
this case?
a) Give the patient painkillers and
schedule appointment for
treatment in a hospital setting.
b) Take the patient immediately to
the hospital for emmergency
treatment
c) refer the patient to pedo dentist
d) proceed with treatment normally in
your clinic
118. The function of Langerhans
cells in the oral epithelium:
a) antibody production (plasma cells)
b) proprioception (merckel)
c) antigen processing
d) transfer of melanin pigment to
surronding keratinocytes
119. A patient present for final
delivery of complete maxillary and
mandibular dentures. Upon
insertion, you noticed that occlusion
is significantly deviated from try-in
appointment.
a) Equilibrate occlusion in patient’s
mouth
b) clinical mount followed by
equilibrationof occlusion in the
articulator
c) take new bite in CR and re-send to
the lab for occlusion equilibration
d) make new dentures
120. Propanolol is a b blocker that
can be used as a anti anxiety due to
which of the following:
a) it is a non selective b blocker
17
b) it can cross the blood brain barrier
c) its metabolism is slow leading to
peak plasma levels
d) its elimination is slow leading to
peak plasma levels
121. All changes are seen in Oral
epithelium with age, except:
a) smoother id surface
b) thinner epithelium
c) increase...of lamina propria
d) increase in number of filiform
papilla on tongue
122.What is the most appropriate
treatment for a large cyst of
mandible:
a) enucleation
b) marsupialization
c) enucleation followed by
marsupialization
d) marsupialization followed by
enucleation
123. Which of the following
statements about vancomycin is
accurate?
a) It is bacteriostatic
b) it binds to PBPs
c) it is not susceptible to penicillinase
124.Which of the teeth would help
activate the best stability in
complete dentures in a patient with
advanced ridge resorption?
a) Anatomic teeth
b) 20 degrees
c) 0 degrees
125.The neurotransmitter agent that
is normally released in the
sinoatrialnode of the heart in
response to a increase in blood
pressure is:
a) acetylcholine
b) dopamine
c) epinephrine
d) glutamate
e) norepinephrine
126. which of the following muscles
is not involved in closure of
mandible?
a) Masseter
b) medial pterigoid
c) posterior part of temporalis
(retrusion)
d) upper head of lateral pterigoid
127.Which is an absolute
contraindication for LA use?
a) Renal disfuction
b) cardiovascular disfunction
c) LA allergy
d) atypical plasma cholinesterase
128. which of the following
regarding fractures in children is
true?
a) Condylar neck fractures are
relatively uncommon
b) condylar processes usually do not
regenerate after early fracture
c) there is high probability of
deficient malocclusion later
d) unilateral condylar fracture are
more common than bilateral
fractures
129.
18
a) buspirone
b) chlorpromazine
c) zolpidem
d) oxazepam
e) haloperidol
130.Which of Hanau’s Quint
equation is easiest to control and
most effective?
a) Condylar inclination
b) occlusal plane
c) cuspal inclination
d) compensating curve
131. Paresthesia is seen in which of
the following types of fracture?
a) Subcondylar
b) zigomaticmaxillar
c) coronoid process
d) symphyseal
132. If a slight open bite persists
after the completion of ortho
treatment, this is best corrected by:
a) elongation of upper incisors
b) elongation of lower incisors
c) elongation of both upper and lower
incisors
d) levelling the curve os spee
133.Inhibition of tromboxane
synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts
5-7 days because:
a) ASA persists in the body for 5-7
days
b) aspirin induces depletion of
aracdonic acid in 5-7 days
c) platelets cannot generate fresh
thromboxane synthesis and their
turn over is 5-7 days
d)
134. 
a) skeletal muscle damage associated
with LA is permanent
b) short acting LA cause the most
damage to skeletal muscle
c) clinical signs os muscle irritation are
not linked to skeletal muscle damage
d)intra oral LA does not cause skeletal
muscle damage
135. The mecanism of statin is:
a)promotes uptake of cholesterol by cells
by depleting cells manufacturing
capabilities
b) breaks down cholesterol in the blood
c)promote storage of cholesterol in
adipose tissue
d)act as a bile sequestrant
136. When orthodontic treatment
involves orthognatic surgery, at
which stage is tooth moviment using
archwires used:
a) only before surgery
b) after surgery
c) before and after surgery
d) timing depend on case
137. It is not an adverse effect of
metronidazole:
a) nausea 
b) headache
c) neuropathia
d) metallic taste
e) diahrrea
19
138. Increase of incisal guidance in
complete denture in a patient with
advanced ridge resorption would
necessitate increase of:
a) condylar inclination
b) compensating curve
c) occlusal plane
d) cuspal inclination
139. The most common cause of
overcontoured crown is:
a)inadequate tooth preparation
b)imporper compensation of porcelain
onto metal substrate
c)
d)
140. All of the following are present
in the pterigomandibular space,
except:
a) nerve to mylohyoid
b) chorda tympani
c) long buccal nerve
d) nerve to pterigoid
141. Which statement regarding
acetaminophen is wrong:
a) it can be safely used as an
antiinflamatory agent in patients
with peptic ulcers
b) it inhibits cycloxigenase...
c) may lead to hepatic necrosis
142. Which is classified as cathegory
C in pregnant woman:
a) Penicillin G
b) Clindamycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Clarithromycin
e) Erythromicin
143. Which antibiotics increase risk
in a patient with chronic hepatitis C?
a) Penicillin G
b) Vancomycin
c) Erythromicin
d) Tobramycin
144. Which of the following is not
associated with QT Syndrome
development?
a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Tetracyclin
c) Macrolides
d) Clindamycin
145. The primary site of excretion of
penicillin is:
a) in the feces after metabolized in
the liver
b) in the proximal tubules of the
kidney
c) in the sweat after metabolism in
the liver
d) 50% in the feces and 50% in the
glomerulus
146. Which is not effect of hypnotic
doses of barbiturates in CV system?
a) Decrease stroke volume
b) reflex bradicardia
c) vasodilation
d) hypotension
147. In which mandible fracture, the
tongue falls backwards?
a) ...
b) ...
c) bilateral parasymphyseal
d) bilateral angle of the mandible
148. Vazirani-Akinosi
20
a) has a lower aspiration rate
compared to IAN blocks
b) requires contact of the needle with
the neck of the condyle
c) is sufficient alone for third molar
extraction
d) requires patient to open mouth
maximum
149. 7 year old child presents with
posterios crossbite on the right side.
On initial contact, posterio teeth of
both sites exhibit cusp to cusp
relationship.
a) Unilateral posterior crossbite with
functional shift
b) Unilateral posterior crossbite
withou functional shift
c) Bilateral posterior crossbite with
functional shift
d) Bilateral posterior crossbite
without functional shift
150.Pits and fissures sealants are
not used in:
a) molars
b) teeth showing signs pf opacity in
pit or fissure
c) patient receiving flouride therapy
d) cavitated lesion
21
Mock 3 part 2
1. IAN blocks in peadiatric patients:
a) are more successful than in adults
b) require a different technique than
that used for adults
c) insertion of needle is at a more
anterior position compared to in
adults
d) the lingula is usually more superior
with respect to the occlusal plane
compared to adults (more inferior)
2. Which of the following is the main
reason
a) Molars can withstand compressive
forces
b) Molars can’t withstand
compressiveforces
c) Molars can withstand shear forces
d) Molars can’t withstand shear
forces
3. A 74 y old patient complains if
chest pain that is increasing in
frequency, intensity and duration.
He has also shorthness of breath. He
was given nitroglycerin in the
hospital, but remains unresponsive.
Which of the following would be the
most likey diagnosis?
a) Classic angina
b) gastroesophageal reflux
c) prinzmetal angina
d) unstable angina
the correct diagnostic is MI. Prinzmetal
angina are spams in coronary artery at
the same time every day, young patient
4. Which of the following are not at
increased risk of TB infection after
contact with mycobacterium
tuberculosis?
a) Alcoholics
b) diabetics
c) children
d) HIV/AIDS
e) None of the above
5. A patient complains of diplopia
following zygomatic fracture due to:
a) fracture of orbital floor
b) entrapment of medial rectus
c) entrapment of superior oblique
d) all of the above
6. The initial priorities in treatment
of root fracture is:
a) Ca hydroxide
b) preserve the pulp
c) pulpectomy
d) reduction + immobilization
7. A 30 y old patient complains of a
sensitive upper molar. He states
that he has active tuberculosis.
Which of the following lesions you
expect to see intraorally?
a) Ulcer on the dorsum of the tongue
b) fluctuant enlargement on the
buccal mucosa
c) petechial hemorrage limited to the
soft palate and posterior part of
hard palate (mononucleosis and
thrombocytopenia)
d) fibrosis of the buccal mucosa
8. All of the following are false
regarding mutually protected
occlusion, except:
a) molars protect anterior teeth from
shear forces
b) molars protect anterior teeth from
compressive forces (all types of
occlusion, not just mutually
protected)
22
c) anterior teeth protect posterior
teeth from compressive forces
d) anterior teeth protect posterior
teeth from shear forces
e) balancing molars protect non
balancing molars from shear forces
9. It is best to avoid aspirin and
NSAIDS in pt with type II diabetes
because:
a) they can inhibit sulfonylureas and
cause hyperglicemia
b) they can inhibit sulfonylureas and
cause hypoglicemia
c) they can cause...
d) ...
10. A 25 y old presented to your
office for periodontal examination.
Intra oral examination revealed
heavy plaque and calculus deposit.
Probing of the hole arch revealed
presence of multiple sites measuring
5-6 mm in depth. After scaling and
root planning, patient returned in 6
weeks with heavy plaque and
calculus. PD revealed to have
worsened. Which is the next course
of action:
a) non surgical debridement (no
compliance)
b) open flap debridement alone (done
when you have good attached
gingiva)
c) open flap with apical positioning
(never in anteriors)
d) modifeied windman flap
e) gingival curettage
11. A 60 years old returns to your
office for a follow up consultation.
Your assistant tells you that his
blood pressure measured 190/125
mm Hg. The patient has no
symptoms and states he does not
feel dizzy. What is the next course of
action:
a) activate emergency services
immediately
b) refer the patient to his physician
immediately
c) continue with the scheduled follow
up as it is non invasive
d) place the patient in supine position
and remeasure BP in 15 minutes.
No symptoms – urgency
symptoms ( blurred vision, chest pain,
dizziness – emergency -ASAP
refer to physician within 1 month – 160
within 1 week – 180
12. A patient presents to your office
with chief complain that his
dentures are loose. Checking the
dentures intra orally, you notice
occlusion is adequate. Which of the
following is the most proper
technique?
a) Closed mouth functional reline
(bite ok, base off)
b) open mouth functional reline (bite
deviated and base off – new CR
and send to lab)
c) closed mouth anatomical reline
d) open mouth anatomical reline
(reline is always functional)
13. Which of the following is the
reason why removable orthodontic
Hawley with finger spring is not
capable of producing translational
moviments:
a) because the finger spring can only
exert very light forces
b) because the finger spring can only
contact tooth on lingual side
c) because the finger spring can only
contact tooth in one point
23
d) because the finger spring loses
action overtime
14. Which of the following is an
indication for steroid cover?
a) A pt will undergo a extensive
restorative procedure upper side
and is taking 20 mg of
hydrocortisone daily for the past
20 years
b) A pt will undergo a surgical
extraction of a severely decayed
tooth and is taking 10 mg of
hydrocortisone daily for the past
10 years
c) A pt will undergo periodontal
surgical debridement and is taking
5 mg of prednisone daily up until a
month previously
d) A pt will extraction for a vertical
fracture and is taking 5 mg of
prednisone daily for the past 15
years
15. Which of the following is not
always done before or during GTR?
a) Assessment of the endo status of
the tooth
b) ensuring that patient is practicing
adequate plaque control
c) removing all deposits from root
surface
d) placing a membrane
e) placing bone graft
16. All of the following may be
seenin patient with accentuated
curve of wilson, except:
a) reduction of overbite
b) buccal incline of upper molars
c) lingual incline of lower molars
d) downward and forward rotation of
mandible
17. What is the maximum amount of
space that can be gained from
interproximal reduction?
a) 1-2 mm
b) 3-4 mm
c) 4-6 mm (more than 6 is severe
crowding, should be treated with
extraction)
d) 8-10 mm
18. A patient of yours started
undergoing radiotherapy for
osteosarcoma of the mandible 10
days ago. She presents with pain
and burning sensation throughout
her mouth. The mucosa is whitish in
appearance with some areas of
erythema, athrophy and ulceration.
What would be the best conduct?
a) Excisional biopsy
b) topical anesthetic (benzydamine)
c) topical antifungic
d) topical corticosteroid (never for a
lesion that needs inflammation to
heal, only for lesions which we
don’t know the etiology)
19. Bilaterally balanced occlusion is
indicated in which of the following
scenarios besides complete
dentures:
a) PD rest class I max arch and
Kennedy class I mand arch
b) PD rest class II max arch and
Kennedy class I mand arch
c) PD rest class II max arch and
Kennedy class I mand arch
d) PD rest class II max arch and
Kennedy class II mand arch
max kennedy I always bilateral.the
others always unilateral
20.Emergency treatment in an accute
abscess in...
24
a) clean out cavity and place a
sedative filling
b) open root canal for draining
c) remove pulp and seal in sedative
medication
d) remove caries and eliminate
trauma
21. A 60 y old had myocardial
infartion 50 days ago. He has since
then been stable. What is not
correct?
a) Avoid elective treatment
b) minimize use of epinephrine in LA
c) Avoid epinephrine impregnated
retraction cord
d) nitrous oxide is a safe option
e) all of the above statements are
correct
22. The medication of choice for the
management of osteoporosis caused
by high doses of corticoids is:
a) alendronate
b) calcitonin
c) mestranol (estrogen)
d) oxandrolone (steroid)
e) Vitamin D
23. Mandibular bicuspids:
a) always require post after endo
therapy
b) are subjected to high shearing
forces than max bicuspids
c) are subjected to high vertical
forces than max bicuspids
d) have a higher survival rate when
restored with custom posts
24. The most common failure of
teeth restored with post and core:
a) recurent caries
b) vertical root fracture
c) loosening of post
d) root perforation25. In a caries susceptible patient
which of the following surfaces is at
lower risk for caries:
a) lingual of upper posterior teeth
b) buccal of upper posterior teeth
c) lingual of lower posterior teeth
d) buccal of lower posterior teeth
26. A patient present for a final
insertion of fixed partial denture
restoring 36 with abutment on
35/37. When inserting the bridge,
full seating in 35 results on rocking
in 37 and vice versa. Which of the
following is the best course of
action?
a) Retake impression and provide
instructions for new bridge
fabrication
b) Retake impression and provide
instructions for bridge repair
c) section bridge, seat 2 segments in
the mouth, take pick up
impression, provide instructions for
lab repair
d) section bridge, take new
impression and provide
instructions for lab repair
27. How much mineral loss of
enamel must occur before a proximal
caries lesion is detectable
radiographically?
a) 20 %
b) 35 %
c) 60 %
d) 70%
28. A pt with steep FMA, retruded
mandible and normal maxilla. Dental
25
findings are mild maxillary and
mandibular crowding, shallow overbite...
a) anteroposterior
b) mediolateral
c) vertical
29. A patient with severe pain, swelling
buccal of 16, large MOD with reccurent
caries
a) acute apical abscess
b) chronic apical abscess
c) acute apical periodontitis
d) chronic apical periodontitis
30. After a cimentation of a PFM
crown on tooth 24, patient
complains of poorly localized pain
only brought by cold drinks and
becames more intense. No pain
without drinking
a) symptomatic irreversible pulpitis
b) asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis
c) reversible pulpitis
d) pulp necrosis
31. A 50 y old pt presented for
bilateral brigdes to replace 16, 15
and 26,25, using canines, first
premolars and 2nd molars as
abutments. Which type of coclusion
and excursion should you choose?
a) MIC and group function excursion
b) MIC and canine guided excursion
c) CR and group function
d) CR and canine guided excursion
32. Bacteria not associated with
caries process:
a) S mutans
b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Actinomyces
33.The most important complication
of streptokinase therapy is:
a) hypotension
b) bleeding
c) fever
d) anaphylaxis
34. The most common immune cells
in dental pulp are:
a) neutrophils
b) T-lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d) denditric cells
35. For a patient with history of
infective endocarditis, which of the
following prophylatic regimen could
be prescribed:
a) Cefazolin 2g IM 30 min before
procedure (1g)
b) Amoxicillin 2g po 2 h before
procedure (1 hour)
c) Azithromicin 500mg po, 1 h efore
procedure
d) Clindamicin 1 g po 1h efore
procedure (600mg)
36. Which of the following has the
best prognosis?
a) Fractured cusp
b) cracked tooth (associated with
small filling, non functional cusps)
c) vertical root fracture (worst)
d) split tooth
37. ...anti fibrinolitic agent
a) ASA
b) Heparin
c) EACA (aminocaproic acid)
d) vitamin K
38....
26
a) when fully seated
b) it incorporates a GP that indicate
the path of insertion and removal
c) the activity of the retentive tip of
the retentive clasp arm shpuld be
unopposed during removal of
denture by any other component
d) ...
39.Which of the following
statements regarding cracked teeth
is true?
a) Cracks usually start on buccal
surfaces (md)
b) both restored and unrestored teeth
are affected
c) cracks are always visible in
radiographs
d) ...
40.What calcium channel blockers
works primarily on vascular smooth
muscles?
a) Amlodipine
b) diltiazem
c) losartan
d) nitroprusside
e) verapramil
41. A 30 y old with severe pain and
bad taste in his upper molar. Intra
oral examination shows a severely
destroyed 16 with fluctuant
swellingon the buccal. You decide to
extract the tooth. Which is the most
proper technique?
a) Buccal + palatal infiltration
b) post superior alveolar nerve block
+ greater palatine nerve
c) post superior alveolar nerve block
+ palatal infiltration + infraorbital
d) exo is contraindicated in the
presence of infection
42. With age, dentin deposition in
the pulp chambers of molars take
most place in:
a) buccal + lingual walls
b) mesial + distal walls
c) roof and floor of the chamber
d) equally from all walls of the
chamber
43. Which of the following is not a
feature of sodium hypochlorite used
for irrigation during endo treatment?
a) Dissolves vital and necrotic tissue
b) has antimicrobial properties
c) has a lubricating effect
d) mechanic flushes debris from the
canal
e) has minimum toxicity when
extruded beyond the canal.
44. When a k file is inserted in a
curved canal:
a) the outer surface of the file is in
compressions and the inner is in
tension
b) the outer surface of the file is in
tension and the inner is in
compression
c) both the outter/inner surface are in
tension
d) both the outter/inner surface are in
compression
45.Which of the following is false
regarding final impression for RPD?
a) Teeth should be recorded in
anatomical form
b) soft tissue should be recorded in
functional form
c) custom trays should always be
used when taking the final
impression (class III, tooth borne,
don’t need it)
27
d) final treatment plan, rests and
guiding plane should be prepared
prior to final impression
46.Which of the following is false
regarding orthodontic archwires
with round cross section?
a) They are capable of tipping teeth
b) They are capable of rotating teeth
c) They are capable of extruding
teeth
d) They are capable of intruding teeth
e) They are capable of torqueing
teeth
47. A patient suffering from initial
insomnia was prescribed a hypnotic
drug...
a) cholinergic
b) noradrenergic
c) glutamergic
d) GABAergic
e) Dopaminergic 
48. Which of the following species is
not foundin root canal treated teeth
with persistant infection?
a) Enterococcus faecalis
b) pre. Intermedia
c) candida albicans
d) parvimonas micra
e) None of the above
49. Which of the following
pahtologies is more accurately
localized by the patient?
a) Reversible pulpitis
b) irreversible pulpitis
c) pulp necrosis
d) symptomatic apical periodontitis
(proprioception)
50. Which of the following describes
the best way epinephrine is
eliminated from the system?
a) Excreted in urine
b) reabsorbed by adrenergic nerves
(norepinephrine)
c) innactivated by MAO receptors
d) inactivated by COMT
51. Symptomatical apical
periodontitis can be seen in
conjunction with which of the
following?
a) Reversible pulpitis
b) irreversible pulpitis
c) pulp necrosis
d) hyperocclusion
e) all of the above
52. Which of the following applies to
primary teeth when compared to
permanent?
a) They have thinner enamel but
thicker dentin
b) they have narrow interproximal
contacts
c) they are whiter in color
d) enamel rods extend gingivally
53. A patient comes to your office for
a wax try-in of complete upper and
lower dentures, complaining that he
hears whistling sound when
pronouncing the word “mississipi”.
What would be the most appropriate
conduct?
a) Increase VDO of denture by
adjusting the teeth in wax intra
orally
b) Increase VDO of denture by
adjusting the teeth in wax on
articulator with ner CR record
28
c) Decrease VDO of denture by
adjusting the teeth in wax
d) Decrease VDO of denture by
adjusting the teeth in wax on
articulator with ner CR record
56. Vasoconstriction is a
characteristic of which drug?
a) Cocaine
b) procaine
c) etidocaine
d) mepevicaine
55. Extraction of a maxillary 1st
premolar is:
a) easier in older patients than in
younger patients
b) made more differently by thicker
buccal bone than palatal bone
c) representsthe higher risk of tooth
fracture during extraction
d) should involve primarily palatal
luxation of tooth
56. Which of the following takes the
least time to absorb?
a) Plain gut
b) chromic catgut
c) polyglicolic acid
d) polylactic acid
57. While extracting a chronically
infected mandivular 1st molar, you
noticed a 2 mm fragment of distal
root. You reevaluate the
preoperative periapical and notice
the distal root is curved and very
closed to IAN canal. What is the
most appropriate conduct?
a) Leave the root in place and inform
the patient
b) Leave the root in place without
informing the patient
c) refer the patient to an Oral
Surgeon for extracting the root
d) place patient on follow up schedule
and only refer if any complications
develop
58. The appearance of markedly
vacuolated, nucleated red cells in
the marrow, anemia and
reticulocytopenia are characteristics
of dose dependent side effect of:
a) azithromycin
b) chloramphenicol
c) clindamycin
d) doxycycline
e) linezolid
59. Which of the following is jaw
moviments is going to produce most
discrepancies in occlusionin a
pantient when faulty bite
registration is transferred:
a) open/close moviment
b) protrusive moviment
c) retrusive moviment
d) excursive moviment
60. In preparing class III cavitty for
resin restoration, the most
proeminent groove is placed within:
a) incisal wall
b) axial wall
c) cervical wall
d) pulpal wall
61. For the extraction of mandibular
3rd molar, the most suitable flap
design you be:
a) an envelope flap from the mesial
line angle of 2nd molar to distal of
3rd molar.
b) an envelope flap from the mesial
line angle of 1st molar to anterior
border of ramus.
29
c) a 3 cornered flap from the mesial
line angle of 2nd molar to distal of
3rd molar. The releasing incision is
mesial.
d) a 3 cornered flap from the mesial
line angle of 2nd molar to distal of
3rd molar. The releasing incision is
distal.
62. After reflecting the flap for the
removal of an impacted mandibular
3rd molar, bone is removed from all,
except:
a) mesial
b) distal
c) buccal
d) lingual
63. Which of the following is a
reversible inhibitor os platelets
cycloxigenases?
a) Alprostadil
b) asa
c) ibuprofen
d) LTC4
e) misoprostol
64.Muscle most commonly involved
in trismus following multiple
injections:
a) masseter
b) temporal
c) medial pterigoid
d) lateral pterigoid
65. All are disadvantages of
composites direct restorative
material, except:
a) low thermal condutivity
b) marginal deterioration with time
c) techinque sensitive
d) time consuming to place
66. Which of the following is the
most significant factor to determine
wheter an immediate complete
denture should be reline rather than
remade:
a) healing... under denture
b) free way is not violated
c) occlusion is in harmony while
discrepancy ins mainly in the
adaptation between base and soft
tissue
d) ...
67. Concorrent perio and endo
treatment:
a) fails to result in replacement of
lesion by bone
b) may save an appearently hopeless
tooth
c) requires curetagge to close a
fenestrating defect following
periapical surgery
d) requires no checking of the apical
seal of the filling
68. While finishing and polishing
class IV composite resin filling you
notice a void at the gingival margin,
what is the most appropriate way to
manage the situation: 
A. Etch, rinse the composite, following by 
bonding and repairing with composite 
resin
B- REMOVE ENTIRE RESTAURATION, 
ISOLATE TOOTH, ETCH, APPLY ADHESIVE 
AND RESTORE WITH COMPOSITE RESIN 
RESTO. 
C. Disc the margin until the filling is
blended with tooth margin
d. Repair the void with composite resin
restoration
69. Using circumferential matrix
band to restore MO cavity on a
upper molar will result in:
30
a) inadequate curing of the
composite at the gingival margin
b) easier adaptation of composite at
gingival margin
c) difference in placing the composite
into the cavity
d) a weak proximal contact
70. What is the most important
factor that is mantained by a
provisional bridge after preparation
on the abutment teeth:
a) occlusion
b) stability of the arch
c) soft tissue health
d) aesthetics
71. What is the time a child should use
foam try with fluoride?
a) 1 min
b) 2 min
c) 3 min
d) 4 min
e) as long as the child can tolerate
72. During condensation of
amalgam:
a) larger condensers are used first
followed by smaller condensers
b) smaller condensers are used first
followed by larger condensers
c) it is advisable to use a single
condenser size for a single filling
d) smaller condensers are only used
for narrow cavities
73. In a class V amalgam
preparation, mesial and distal walls
diverge in order to:
a) aid in retention of the restoration
b) ensure that all the caries in the
proximal line angles have been
removed
c) prevent undermining enamel near
the proximal surface
d) ...
e) none of the above
74. Methicillin resistant
staphylococcus do not respond to b
lactam antibiotics because:
a) they produce b lactamase which
destroys methicillin and other
related drugs
b) they elaborate amidase which
destroy methicillin and other
related drugs
c) they have acquired a penicilin
binding protein which has low
affinity for b lactam antibiotics
d) they are lesse permeable to b
lactam antibiotics
75. A patient comes to your office,
and after signing informed consent,
you decide for a full crown in a vital
46. After 2 weeks the tooth becames
sensitive and you perform a RCT
through the crown. At the end of the
treatment, the patient complains
about the esthetics of the crown and
wants you to redo the prostheis.
What should you do?
a) Fabricate a new crown free of
charge
b) Fabricate a new crown and charge
the pt full fees
c) Fabricate a new crown and charge
the pt 1/2 of fees
d) decline the fabrication of new
crown
76. The most suitable
maxilla/mandible relationship is:
a) a contact between a functional
cusp tip to a marginal ridge
31
b) a contact between a non functional
cusp tip to a marginal ridge
c) a contact between a functional
cusp tip to two marginal ridges
d) ...
77.The most common cause of endo
failure:
a) broken instrument
b) overfilled canal
c) incomplete obturation
d) incomplete biomechanical
preparation
78. After etching and rinsing a
cavity, it is best to:
a) dry enamel/dentin before applying
adhesive
b) keep both enamel/dentin wet
before applying adhesive
c) keep enamel wet and dentin dry
before applying adhesive
d) keep enamel dry and dentin wet
before applying adhesive
79. Formocresol pulpotomy is done
in the following conditions:
a) a completed formed permanent
tooth
b) radicular pulp infection
c) primary teeth free of infections
d) primary teeth with...
80.This drug, which does not activates
opioids receptors...
a) amphetamine
b) buprenorphrine
c) naloxane
d) naltrexone
e) propoxyphene
81. Forces acting to dislogde a free
end partial denture with an anterior
indirect retainer are:
a) lever 1
b) lever 2
c) lever 3 (normal mastication:
fulcrum is the condyle, effort
masseter, resistance teeth)
d) the simple machine lever is not
applicable in principle to PD.
82. In vertical root fractures,
chances of success are:
a) poor
b) fair
c) good
d) excellent
83. Which of the following statement
is FALSE regarding dental
impression making for indirect
restoration:
a) digital impression can be more
comftable for both patient and
practioner
b) digital impression can reduce...
c) digital impressions reduce the
need for retraction cord and
moisture control during impression
taking
d) NOA
84. Which of the following is
released in truamatic tissue, causes
pain and edema nd is inactivated by
angiotensinconverting enzyme:
a) angiotensin I
b) angiotensin II
c) atrial natriuretic peptide
d) bradykinin
e) calcitonin gene-related peptide
32
85. In sialolithiasis, the salivary duct
is:
a) infected
b) inflamed
c) occluded
d) opened
86.Calcium hydroxide used for DPC
has all of the following properties,
except:
a) excellent antibacterial action
b) adheres to dentin surrounding a
pulp exposure
c) high solubility
d) provides a poor seal against
bacteria and other irritants
e) represents the gold standard por
pulp capping
87. The bracing arms in removable
partial denture will provide the
deture with the most significant
stability in which plane?
a) Frontal plane (retentitive tips)
b) sagittal plane (indirect retainers)
c) horizontal plane
d) oblique plane (rests)
88. All of the following are
advantages of nitrous oxide sedation
in peadiatric patients, except:
a) N2O has very high blood gas
solubility, enabling fast induction
and recovery
b) N2O can be easily titrated until the
patient reaches desired level of
sedation
c) N2O lacks serious side effects
d) ...
89. Which of the following requires
prophylaxis:
a) periodontal probing
b) post operatory 
All of the above, wrong question
90.
a) flexible splinting for 2 weeks
b) flexible splinting for 4 weeks with a
course of antibiotics
c) rigid splinting for 2 weeks
d) rigid splinting for 4 weeks with a
course of antibiotics
91. Alveolar resorption in complete
edentulous patient produces which
arch relationship?
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
92. Which of the following is not
used for tuberculosis treatment?
a) Isoniazid
b) rifampicin
c) ethambutol
d) gentamycin
93. Which is false regarding antral
pseudocyst?
a) They result from accumulation of
sinus mucous
b) the may be caused by inflamation
of the sinus lining
c) they are asymptomatic
d) no treatment is required
e) they may regress spontaneously
94. When assessing a patient for
mandibular complete denture, you
notice that there’s minimum space
posteriorly. Which muscle should be
33
surgically manage to overcome this
problem?
a) Mylohoid
b) geniohyoid
c) genioglossus
d) hyoglossus
95. Which of the following is not
associated with aspirin?
a) Tinnitus
b) analgesia
c) antipyresis
d) constipation
96. Which of the following is false
regading immediate dentures?
a) Recall appointment is scheduled
24 hours after delivery in order to
reassess healing condition of the
denture
b) patient is instructed to remove the
denture at night starting for first
day in order to facilitate
unimpeded healing
c) patient is advised not to brush the
denture with tooth paste
d) patient is advised that as healing
pregresses, multiple adjustments
will be necessary
97. Blood levels of which of the
following clotting factor declines
most rapidly with initiation of
warfarin?
a) Factor VII
b) Factor IX
c) Factor X
d) Prothrombin
98. After open bite correction in a
patient without thumbsucking
habits, the most common cause of
relapse is:
a) intrusion of upper incisors
b) intrusion of lower incisors
c) overeruption of the upper molars
d) overeruption of the lower molars
(with habit: relapse anteriors)
99. In amalgam restoration, which
may lead to a deficiency at the
interproximal cavosurface margin?
a) Overtightening of the matrix band
(deficient margin, not cavosurface
angle)
b) the use of a regular non-contoured
band
c) condensing large increments of
amalgam
d) the use of smaller wedge
100. Rapid palatal expansion in pre
adolescents will result in:
a) predominant skeletal expansion
b) predominant dental expansion
c) equal dental and skeletal
expansion
d) only skeletal expansion with no
dental expansion
101. All of the following is true
regarding acid etching, except:
a) it’s done with 37% or 50% of
phosporic acid
b) it results in increased surface area
c) ...
d) etching for additional period
results in greater penetration of
polymers
102.Which is not true advantage
regarding sterelization of
instruments in steam autoclave?
a) Very efficient
34
b) fast
c) does not alter the sharpness of
instruments
d) availability of equipament sized for
office use
103. The shortened dental arch is a 
concept that favours “no 
treatment”. What is the minimum 
amount of unit this concept have?
a) 1 functional unit
b) 2 functional units
c) 3functional units
d) 4 functional units
e) 5 functional units
104.What additive is commonly used
to delay the oxidation of 
epinephrine?
a) Dist. Water
b) methylparaben
c) sodium chloride
d) sodium bisulfate
105. The first priority in RCT is:
a) relief of pain
b) sterile technique
c) throrough biomechanical 
preparation
d) complete obturation of RC
106. After orthodontic tooth movement 
has been completed...
a) gingival fibers take more time to 
reorganize than periodontal fibers
b) retainers must be worned for 6 
months in most of cases
c) the arch wires must be kept in the 
mouth for extra period of time as a
means of retention
d) rotated teeth are relatively stable 
in their new position
107. Which one requires the lowest 
optimum force to generate 
moviment?
a) Tipping
b) intrusion (smaller surface area to 
move)
c) extrusion
d) bodily movement
e) root uprighting
108. Which of the regimens is used 
to treat a patient with active 
tuberculosis?
a) A 4 drug combination for 2 months
+ a 2 drug phase for ate least a 
year
b) a 3 drug combination for ate least 
8 months
c) a 4 drug combination for 2 months,
followed by a 2 drug combination 
for 4 months
d) a 4 drug combination for ate least 
1 year
109. A patient presents to your 
office missing teeth 45 to 48,37 and 
38, 16 to 17 and 27 to 28. What 
type of treatment would be most 
indicated to this patient:
a) maxillary and mandibular RPDs
b) maxillary and mandibular implant 
supported dentures
c) maxillary and mandibular implant 
supported bridges
d) no prostho treatment required
110. Varying the brackets thickness 
in the Edgewise appliance will 
eliminate the need for:
a) first order bends (BL)
b) second order bends (MD)
c) third order bends (TORQUE)
35
111.Functional appliances used for 
skeletal class III relationship result 
in all of the following, except:
a) downward backward rotation of 
mandible
b) downward/forward eruption of 
maxillary posterior teeth
c) lingual tipping of mandibular 
incisors
d) palatal tipping of maxillary incisors
112. Which of the following is not a 
feature of Plummer Vinson 
syndrome:
a) Pernicious anemia
b) dysphagia
c) sore mouth
d) increased frequency of oral 
pharyngeal carcinoma
113. A female patient presents to 
your office for a veneer preparation 
of tooth 11. When reassessing her 
medical history, she states that she 
has anemia, with her Hb 9 g/dL and 
her 02 level of 89%. What is the 
most appropriate conduct?
a) Start veneer preparation while 
continuing to monitor her PO2
b) place her on 100% 02 for 30 
minutes, then start the procedure
c) defer elective treatment until her 
health improves
d) activate emergency medical 
services
minimum for elective treatment: hb of 11
g/Dl and 02 91%)
114. Which letter is used to 
determine anteroposterior position 
of maxillary central incisors in 
relation to inferior lip?
a) S
b) D
c) F
d) G
115. A patient in hemodyalisis will 
show all of the following oral 
manifestations, except:
a) uremic odor
b) hypersalivation
c) tongue/mucosal pain
d) osseous changes associated with 
hyperparathyrodism
116. Which of the following 
statements is true regarding HIV 
infection?
a) All infected individuous show 
acute symptoms 1-3 weeks after 
infection
b) the virus may stay latent for up to 
10 years
c) ...
d) ...
117. Nitrous oxide during 
pregnancy:
a) should be used for less than 30 
minutes and in concentration not 
exceeding 50%
b) shouldbe used for less than 30 
minutes and in concentration not 
exceeding 70%
c) is absolute contraindication
d) can be used without any risk to the
fetus or the mother
118. In peadiatric patient:
a) ashtma has a decreased 
prevalence
b) ashtma is an acute inflamatory 
disorder
c) ashtma leads to increase caries
d) ashtma attacks can be triggered 
by anxiety
36
119. During excursion to the right in 
a patient with canine guided 
relation, which surface of 16 should 
contact 46?
a) buccal cusp of 46 with buccal cusp 
of 16
b) buccal cusp of 46 with palatal cusp
of 16
c) lingual cusp of 46 with buccal cusp
of 16
d) lingual cusp of 46 with palatal cusp
of 16
e) 46 should not occlude with 16
120. Carying out elective treatment 
is acceptable in all of the following 
cases, except:
a) pregnant patient in her second 
trimester
b) stable angina pectoris
c) BP reading 165/105 mm Hg
d) a diabetic with BG less than 70 
mg/dL
121. Which condition you expect to 
see Hutchinson’s incisors?
a) Acquired syphilis
b) congenital syphilis
c) tertiary syphilis
d) ...
122....
a) cast gold inlay
b) pin-retained amalgam restoration
c) packable composite resin 
restoration
d) RMGI to block out the undercuts 
beneath it
123. If given with aspirin, which of the 
following would compromise the anti-
platelet effect?
a) Tramadol
b) acetaminophen
c) codeine
d) ibuprofen
124. A patient presents with an 
acute abscess of lower first 
premolar. The tooth requires 
extraction. The patient reports a 
history of squamous cell carcinoma 
on the tongue 3 years ago and 
excised. He also reports a history of 
radiotherapy after surgery for a 
period of 2 months. In order to 
extract the abscessed tooth, the 
dentist should
a) Antibiotic prophylaxis before and after
extraction.
b) Avoidance of LA containing 
epinephrine.
c) Hyperbaric oxygen treatment prior to 
and after tooth extraction.
d) open surgery in hospital
 125. Caries control is an
intermediate treatment best
managed by:
a) composite resin
b) amalgam
c) amalgam and intermediate
restorative material (IRM)
d) NOA
126. Root fracture in apical third,
without mobility. Which is the best
treatment?
a) Extraction
b) endo treatment
c) no treatment/ periodic recall
d) NOA
(you have to splint, 2 weeks)
37
127.Loss of a permanent maxillary
1st molar may result in, except:
a) distal drift of the adjacent pm
b) mesial drift of the adjacent molar
c) overeruption of the opposing tooth
d) increase in overbite
128. A patient presents to your
office with a marked indurated
swelling in a right central incisor.
Patient body temperature measures
37.8 C and he is in severe pain for 24
hours. Pulp vitality is negative,
Which would be the best course of
action?
a) Extracting the 11
b) administer antibiotics and
analgesics + initiating RCT when
symptoms subside
c) debridement of RCT of 11 +
prescribing antibiotics and
analgesics
d) incising and drianing the swelling
and prescribing antibiotics and
analgesics
129.Trephination is:
a) surgical creation of a fistula by
puncturing the soft tissue and
bone overlying the root apex to
provide drianage for pus trapped
within bone.
b) surgical creation of a fistula by
puncturing the bone to provide a
drain for local pus
c) surgical exposure of the periapical
area of a tooth followed by
periapical curettage
d) is indicated for a toorh with chronic
apical abscess asscociated with a
fistula
130....
a) there is a tendency for overbite to
decrease
b) there is a tendency for overjet to
increase
c) the permanent dentition will be
well aligned
d) the primary molars must be
encouraged to drift mesially
e) there is tooth arch size
discrepancy
131. A patient presents to your
office for a final cimentation of
crwon on 46. The crown fits the
stone cast, but intra orally has a gap
in the distolingual margin. What
could possibly happened to achieve
this result?
a) Tight distal contact
b) tight mesial contact
c) bubble on the distal of the stone
die
d) bubble on the mesial of the stone
die
132. Brown stains in Xray films may
be caused by
a) Inadequate fixation or rising after
developing
b) right temperature developer
c) Excessive fixation
d) Increased kup
133...
a) mental
b) nasopalatine
c) inferior alveolar
d) posterior superior alveolar
134. An 8 mm oroantral fistula can
be treated by
a) antibiotic and figure of 8 suture 
b) antibiotic + Buccal advancement flap
38
c) antibiotics, bone grafting and a figure
of 8 suture
d ) No treatment required
135. Which of the following is not a
feature of Paget’s disease?
a) Enlarged facial bones
b) tooth mobility
c) sensoneural pain
d) decreased levels of serum alkaline
phosphatase
e) increase levels of hydroxiproline
136. After extraction of 54/55 in a
peado patient, which would be the
best management?
a) Band and loop space mantainer (1
tooth)
b) removable appliance
c) nance appliance (more than 1
teeth. E’s always require space
mantainer)
d) space mantainer os not necessary
as space losso wil probably not
occur
137. Post administration of local
anesthesia the patient reported feeling
anxious, itchiness and abdominal cramps.
The patient is most likely experiencing
which of the following?
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Overdose
c) Local anesthesia toxicity
d) Epinephrine reaction
138...
a) increase the length of the implant
b) increase the diameter of the
implant
c) increase the surface area of the
implant
d) attaining successful
osseointegration at the implant
surface
139....
a) Class Ia
b) Class Ib
c) Class Ic
d) Class II
e) Class III
140. What is the most appropriate
management of a patient with
hyperventilation?
a) Increase CO2 in blood
b) increase 02 in blood
c) relax the patient
d) distract the patient
141...
a) decrease venous return to the
heart
b) increase blood pressure
c) increase circulatory volume
d) increase heart rate
e) increase plasma volume
142. Reliable aspiration is likely to
come from which needle?
a) 25 gauge
b) 26 gauge
c) 27 gauge
d) 30 gauge
143. Which would be the best choice
of graft for a large osseous defect?
a) Autograft
b) allograft
c) xenograft (buys you time)
39
d) alloplastic graft
144. A peptide that causes increase
in capillary permeability and edema
is:
a) angiotensin II
b) bradykinin
c) captopril
d) histamine
e) losartan
145. Which of the following directly
inhibits thrombin?
a) Aspirin
b) dabigatran
c) heparin (antithrombin III)
d) Ticlopide
e) warfarin 
146. Bilateral subcondylar fracture
will cause:
a) inability to open mouth
b) mandible moves forward in
moviment
c) anterior open bite
d) closed bite
147. The main causative
microorganism in Ludwig’s Angina
is:
a) Streptococcus viridans
b) Staphylococcus aureus
(endocarditis)
c) Staphylococcus albus
d) Streptococcus hemolitics
(rheumatic fever)
148. Fluoride richness of surface
enamel:
a) remains constant
b) increases with age
c) increases in increments
d) decreases with time due to
occlusal wear
149. The cavosurface margin of gold
inlay preparation should be:
a) feather edge
b) at right angles
c) chamfer
d) bevelled (40 degrees)
150. The sandwich technique
regarding bone grafting is used for:
a) to increase the ridge thickness
minimally
b) to increase the ridge thickness
significantly
c) to increase the height thickness
minimally
d) to increase the height thickness
significantly