Exercios validação de diploma canadá 2

Prévia do material em texto

Mock Exam III 



Booklet 1 
1. A child with persistent severe thumb 
sucking habit will most likely have? 
a. skeletal open bite 
b. unilateral cross bite 
c. hyperactive orbicularis oculi 
d. maxillary arch constriction 
2. Which of the following is true regarding 
the bacteria Aggregatibacter 
Actinomycetemocomitans (A.A.)? 
a. it is the predominantly causative 
agent of generalized chronic 
periodontitis 
b. it is found predominantly in deep 
pockets of localized chronic 
periodontitis 
c. it is present in supra gingival plaque 
d. it is found predominantly in most 
cases of localized aggressive 
periodontitis 
e. it is primary causative agent of 
generalized aggressive periodontitis 
3. What is the reason behind the low chance 
of getting HIV infection through 
transcutaneous injury from a patient’s saliva? 
a. HIV virus numbers are low in saliva 
b. HIV virus is only transmitted through 
blood 
c. gloves worn by clinicians are strong 
barriers against saliva 
d. flossing and brushing eliminates HIV 
from mouth 
4. Measurement of the clinical attachment 
level is? 
a. from CEJ to base of sulcus 
b. from free gingiva to the attached 
gingiva 
c. from CEJ to the periodontal ligament 
d. from CEJ to mucogingival junction 
5. The advantage of using screw retained 
crown vs cement retained crow in implant 
restorations is that the screw retained crowns 
demonstrate better: 
a. retrievability 
b. tissue adaptation 
c. occlusion 
d. aesthetics 
6. Which of the following is least radiopaque 
when taking a bitewing x-ray? 
a. zirconia 
b. metal ceramic 
c. gold palladium 
d. lithium silicate crown 
7. Which of the following cements is the most 
difficult to remove subgingivally during 
cementation of crowns 
a. resin cement 
b. polycarboxylate 
c. GI cement 
d. zinc phosphate 
8. Which of the following is the most 
appropriate technique to be used in the 
correction of incisor protrusion? 
a. Alevoloplastc surgery 
b. molar distalization 
c. elastic mechanics 
d. removable appliance 
9. Dentine sensitivity resulting from cold and 
hot is due to? 
a. stretch receptors 
b. free nerve endings 
c. proprioception 
d. odontoblastic process 
10. Which of the following resembles a 
mixed lesion that is associated with impacted 
tooth in a 15 year old patient? 
a. AOT 
b. Pindborg tumor 
c. odontogenic keratocysts 
d. myxoma 
11. The presence of bilateral white patches on 
the tongue in a patient with severe kidney 
disease most likely would be? 
a. uremic stomatitis 
b. fungal infection 
c. lichen planus 
d. leukoplakia 
12. Patient presents to your office 
complaining of painless growth on the side of 
the tongue. The growth has vertical lines and 
extends on the dorsum and ventral surfaces of 
the tongue. Which of the following would 
most likely be associated with the growth? 
a. fungiform papilla 
b. circumvallate papilla 
c. folliate papilla 
d. filiform papilla 
13. Patient presents to your office for RPD 
fabrication. When selecting the shade with the 
patient, she selects a shade that is lighter than 
her teeth. Which of the following is most 
appropriate course of action? 
a. bleach the natural teeth to match the 
shade she selected 
b. give her the shade of denture teeth she 
wants after obtaining informed 
consent 
c. refer the patient to a specialist 
d. don’t tell her and provide the same 
shade of denture teeth as her natural 
teeth 
14. A 12 year old patient came for a 3 week 
follow up of his central incisor that was 
intruded 2 mm. No movement of the tooth 
was observed. What would be the best 
management for this patient? 
a. reposition incisor orthodontically 
b. reposition incisor surgically 
c. observe and allow incisor to re-erupt 
by itself 
d. extract incisor and replace by a 
prosthesis 
15. Patient presented for RPD fabrication. 
Patient is classified as Kennedy class I and 
requires RPD that has free end. You have 
decided to place surveyed crowns on the 
distal abutments for the RPD. Which of the 
following is the best method to be used in 
order to help with the articulation needed to 
generate harmonious occlusion? 
a. PVS bite registration after preparing 
abutment 
b. base plate with wax up try-in teeth 
c. modified base plate with wax 
fabricated on diagnostic cast 
d. modified base plates with wax 
fabricated on the master cast 
16. Patient presents with anterior cross bite 
without a shift. What should be the best stage 
of correction? 
a. primary dentition 
b. mixed dentition before maxillary 
growth is completed 
c. mixed dentition after maxillary 
growth have completed 
d. permanent dentition 
17. Patient presents with unilateral crossbite 
where the mandible moves to the ipsilateral 
side of the crossbite upon maximum 
interdigitation. Which of the following best 
describes the orthodontic diagnosis? 
a. true unilateral cross bite 
b. bilateral constriction of the maxillary 
c. unilateral constriction of the maxilla 
d. unilateral cross bite with a functional 
shift 
18. Which of the following cannot be used as 
a method of gaining space for orthodontic 
corrections in adults? 
a. non-surgical skeletal maxillary 
expansion 
b. surgical skeletal maxillary expansion 
c. nonsurgical dental maxillary 
expansion 
d. surgical dental maxillary expansion 
19. During orthodontic treatment of a young 
patient with crowded anterior teeth, a black 
triangle was observed in the midline. This 
could be due to? 
a. rectangular teeth 
b. flaring of roots of the centrals 
c. excessive interproximal stripping 
during treatment 
d. periodontal disease 
e. contact is too gingival 
20. After completing a direct composite 
veneer on a central incisor it appears wider 
than normal. Which of the following 
techniques would make a central incisor look 
narrower? 
a. adding 0.5 mm of composite on the 
incisal edge 
b. modification of the incisor 
mesiodistal width by removing from 
inter proximal area 
c. placing the interproximal line angles 
more palatal 
d. placing the interproximal line angles 
more facial 
21. After admitting a patient into the 
operatory and seating him on the dental chair, 
patient develops crushing chest pain that 
radiates to his left arm, which of the 
following resembles the most significant 
emergency management? 
a. oxygen 
b. CAB 
c. semisupine position 
d. supine position 
22. What is the maximum recommended dose 
of Mepivacaine 3% plain can you administer 
in a patient that weighs 60 kg? 
a. 4 
b. 4.5 
c. 5 
d. 5.5 
23. Which of the following antibiotics 
constitute the best modality of treatment for 
generalized aggressive periodontitis? 
a. clindamycin 150 mg did x 10 days 
b. metronidazole 250 mg tid x 10 days 
c. doxycycline 20 mg did x 30 days 
d. doxycycline 20 mg did x 10 days 
24. Patient presented with subcondylar 
fracture on right condyle. Which of the 
following would happen: 
a. deviation to the left on protrusion 
b. deviation to the right on protrusion 
c. limited lateral excursion on the same 
side 
d. deviation to the left upon opening 
25. A patient presented with the following 
findings: tooth 1.4 has M1 mobility, 4 mm 
pockets on all sides. Percussion test is 
positive. Vitality test within normal limits. A 
PA radiograph revealed widening of PDL in 
the apical half of the root. What is the most 
likely diagnosis? 
a. symptomatic apical periodontitis 
b. asymptomatic apical periodontitis 
c. occlusal trauma 
d. acute apical abscess 
e. chronic apical abscess 
26. While working on HIV positive patient, 
blood splattered on your gloves. Which of the 
following is true regarding anti-viral 
prophylaxis? 
a. antivirals prophylaxis should be taken 
within hours 
b. antivirals are not necessary until the 
patient is proven positive for HIV 
through recent blood test 
c. antivirus are not necessary 
d. antivirals prophylaxis should be taken 
within the day 
27. A 3 year old patient presented with an 
intruded primary incisor due to an accident.The amount of intrusion is 3 mm. The most 
appropriate management is to: 
a. observe 
b. take a radiograph and assess 
c. extract the tooth 
d. prescribe antibiotics 
28. A patient presents with localized 7 mm 
infrabony pocket mesial to 1.3. Which of the 
following constitutes the best management? 
a. scaling and root planing 
b. media wedge 
c. open play debridement 
d. guided tissue regeneration 
29. Patient presents with miller class 1 
recession on facial aspect of upper canine. 
Patient doesn’t like how it looks and 
experiences sensitivity sometimes upon 
drinking cold water. Which of the following 
is the best management? 
a. coronally positioned flap 
b. sub epithelial connective tissue graft 
c. pedicure flap 
d. free gingival graft 
30. Which of the following inflammatory 
cells would be most commonly present in 
children with gingivitis? 
a. PMNC’s 
b. plasma cells 
c. lymphocytes 
d. eosinophils 
31. Which of the following is the most 
appropriate definitive management for a 
complicated crown fracture that took place 48 
hours ago in a closed apex tooth? 
a. direct pulp capping with MTA 
b. direct pulp capping with GI 
c. placement of permanent restoration 
d. pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide 
e. root canal therapy treatment 
32. Patient presents with diplopia and ptosis 
due to infection from 16. Which of the 
following could this patient be having along 
with mentioned signs and symptoms? 
a. facial paralysis 
b. cavernous sinus thrombosis 
c. trismus 
d. trigeminal neuralgia 
33. An 11 year old patient presents with 
sensitivity to cold upon eating ice cream. 
Intraoral exam revealed hypocalcified area on 
buccal surface of 1.4. Which of the following 
is the most appropriate management? 
a. restoring the hypo calcification of 
composite resin 
b. restoring the hypo calcification with 
GI cement 
c. restoring the hypo calcification with 
amalgam. 
d. applying varnish with fluoride and 
monitoring if symptoms will subside 
34. All of the following patients may express 
increased sensitivity to latex EXCEPT: 
a. patient with previous sensitivity to 
latex 
b. patient with previous sensitivity to 
kiwi and banana 
c. patient with congenitally missing of 
melanocytes 
d. patient with spina bifida 
35. Which of the following is true regarding a 
congenitally missing lateral incisor? 
a. it is more common in male than 
female 
b. it is associated with a diastema due ti 
presence of mesiodens 
c. it is associated with diastema that is 
larger than normal 
d. it is associated with central incisors 
that are larger than normal 
36. Which of the following is the primary 
reason for placement of an indirect retainer in 
Kennedy class I RPDs? 
a. to prevent denture from rotation 
towards the soft tissue 
b. to prevent denture rotation in the 
frontal plane 
c. to prevent denture from rotasion in 
the frontal plane 
d. to prevent denture rotation in 
horizontal plane 
e. to prevent denture rotation in sagittal 
plane 
37. Which of the following constitutes the 
best management for erosive lichen planus? 
a. topical steroid 
b. systemic steroid 
c. observation 
d. incisional biopsy 
e. excision biopsy 
38. Which of the following would be the main 
reason behind RCT failures? 
a. insufficient length of cleaning and 
shaping 
b. insufficient length of obturation 
c. presence of accessory canals 
d. unnoticed perforations 
39. A patient walked in to a dental office 
suffering from a dental infection resulting in 
cellulitis. The patient looks fatigued. When 
the patient spoke, a hoarseness of the voice 
was noticed, what would be the most likely 
diagnosis. 
a. buccal space infection 
b. Ludwig’s angina 
c. infra temporal space infection 
d. submandibular space infection 
40. A child was brought to your office 
suffering form pain in one of his primary 
molars. The mom mentioned that the pain 
keeps waking him at night, which of the 
following is the most important in the 
treatment of this patient? 
a. prescribe systemic antibiotic 
b. prescribe analgesic 
c. perform pulpotomy on the affected 
tooth. 
d. perform pulpectomy of the affected 
tooth 
41. A 10 year old child who was caries free 
until an enamel caries was discovered 
interproximally during a routine bitewing. 
The best treatment would be 
a. restore enamel cavity with an 
amalgam filling 
b. restore enamel cavity with composite 
filling 
c. manage enamel cavity with 
preventive fluoride varnish 
application. 
d. restore enamel cavirty with GIC resin 
fillings 
42. The daily flushing of a dental water 
pipelines will? 
a. completely eliminate the bacterial biofilm 
b. have some effect on reducing bacterial 
load 
c. not affect the bacterial count in the water 
42. Patient presented with RO area at 
posterior mandible. Related to first and 
second molar. Teeth were extracted and area 
was curetted. The associated lesion was sent 
for biopsy and histopathology confirmed a dx 
of unilocular ameloblastoma. What further 
treatment should be included? 
a. observation 
b. repeat curettage 
c. resect healthy rim of bone around 
lesion 
d. Mandible resection 
43. Patient presents for new patient exam. 
Intra oral findings revealed the presence of 
bilateral erythema at the buccal mucosa. The 
remaining tissue is within normal limits. 
Which of the following is the most likely 
diagnosis? 
a. candidiasis 
b. lichen planus 
c. erythroplakia 
d. white sponge nevus 
44. A pregnant patient came for a filling. 
While giving LA the patient undergoes a 
vasovagal attack (syncope). The patient 
medical history revealed she is pregnant. 
Which of the following should be included in 
the management of tis patient? 
a. place patient in semi supine position 
b. lay patient on her side 
c. place patient in trendelenburg position 
d. place the patient in upright position to 
avoid supine hypotension 
45. Patient presents to office for 
comprehensive dental treatment. Medical 
history reveals that the patient is on 
rifampicin. Which of the following is 
contraindicated? 
a. ultrasonic scaling 
b. extraction 
c. endodontic treatment 
d. orthodontic treatment 
46. Which of the following is considered an 
early manifestation of diabetes mellitus type 
1? 
a. blurred vision 
b. wight loss 
c. numbness of feet 
d. diabetic coma 
 
47. A patient is waiting in the waiting room 
for his appointment, he suddenly stops 
breathing and passes out. Oxygen was 
administered to patient with oxygen mask and 
CPR was initiated. Patient still has pulse. 
However, as you are administering oxygen, 
you notice that oxygen is not flowing in. 
Which of the following is the most 
appropriate management 
a. tilt chin back 
b. tilt chin forward 
c. crichothyrotomy 
d. tracheotomy 
48. Which of the following would best 
describe the radiographic appearance of 
osteosclerosis 
a. cotton wool appearance 
b. lesion with a well-defined margin 
c. corticated radiopaque lesion 
49. In finalizing preparations for composite 
resin restorations, the cavosurface margin 
interproximally should be finished at 
a. 45º 
b. 110º 
c. 130º 
d. 170º 
50. Which of the following is the least likely 
to be detected by a CBCT? 
a. vertical root fracture 
b. perforation 
c. external resorption 
d. internal resorption 
51. To regain lost space in the maxillary arch, 
which of the following is the technique to be 
used? 
a. Derotation of molars 
b. tipping incisor 
c. extraction of upper 1st PM 
d. extraction of upper canines 
52. After administering 8 carpules of 
mepivacaine 3% plain. Patient states that he 
started to experience twitching of the face. 
Which of the following is the most likely 
explanation? 
a. overdose of local anesthesia 
b. overdose of epinephrine 
c. cerebrovascular accident 
d. myocardial infarction 
53. A child was hit in the face and loss 
consciousness for 30 minutes. The child was 
brought in immediately to the clinic by his 
parents where you noticedthat he had 1 tooth 
avulsed and 2 were fractured. Which of the 
following is the first step you should take in 
the management of this case? 
a. check patient cranial nerves 
b. replace avulsed tooth and repair 
fractured teeth 
c. take a radiograph of affected area 
d. replant the avulsed tooth 
54. Digoxin toxicity is expected in patients 
taking which category of the following drugs? 
a. antihistamine 
b. NSAIDs 
c. anxiolytics 
d. antibiotics 
55. Which of the following is the most likely 
reason behind the infection of heart 
prosthesis? 
a. seeding from a nearby place during 
implantation 
b. infection from bacteria through blood 
stream 
c. Biofilm formation over the prosthesis 
over time. 
d. not use antibiotics during dental 
procedure 
56. In periodontitis, it is expected to have an 
a. increase in GCF and increase in redox 
status 
b. decrease in GCF and increase redox 
status 
c. increase GCF and decrease redox 
status 
d. decrease GCF and decrease redox 
status 
57. A P value of less than 0.04 in 
epidemiology means 
a. we accept null hypothesis 
b. we reject null hypothesis 
c. we accept alternative hypothesis 
d. we reject alternative hypothesis 
58. Parents presented to the office with a 3 
year old child that is missing his lower central 
incisors. Parents tell you that they witnessed 
normal exfoliation of the teeth. Clinical exam 
and radiographs are within normal range. 
What is the most appropriate action? 
a. report the case to child abuse 
b. conduct further investigation 
c. instruct parents of proper oral hygiene 
protocols 
d. contract a space maintainer for 
aesthetics 
59. A crown was cemented with GIC and the 
patient returns with pain after 24hours that 
was triggered by cold and hot. Which of the 
following is the most likely cause? 
a. occlusal irregularities 
b. microleakeage at the margin 
c. dissolution of cement under the crown 
d. pulpitis occurring during cementation 
60. A Type I diabetic patient presented with 
pericoronitis. Which of the following would 
best describe the type of infection? 
a. strictly aerobic 
b. facultative aerobic 
c. obligate anaerobic 
d. mixed aerobic and anaerobic 
61. Which of the following class of drugs 
increase the chance of syncope? 
a. antipsychotics 
b. pain killers 
c. antihypertensive 
d. antidepressant 
62. During extraction of 4.6, 4.7 was luxated 
and shows mobility. What is the appropriate 
management of this case? 
a. stop the procedure and splint 47 
b. complete extraction of 46 and and 
splint 47 
c. extract 46 and 47 and consider 
replacement options 
63. What should be the buccolingual width of 
an implant with regards to neighbouring 
teeth? 
a. larger 
b. smaller 
c. same width 
64. Which of the following systemic effects is 
most likely associated with obstructive sleep 
apnea syndrome? 
a. myocardial infarction 
b. arrhythmia 
c. aneurysm 
d. hypertension 
65. Which of the following is not associated 
with viral infection? 
a. Kaposi Sarcoma 
b. erythema multiform 
c. hairy leukoplakia 
d. pemphigus vulgaris 
66. Which of the following is the best line of 
treatment of burning mouth syndrome? 
a. viscous lidocaine 
b. antihistamines 
c. corticosteriods 
d. systemic analgesics 
67. A healthy adult patient presents to your 
office to dental treatment. During treatment 
undergoes syncope, what is the management? 
a. place patient in upright position 
b. place patient in semi supine position 
c. lay patient on the side 
d. Place the patient in Trendleburg 
position 
68. Which of the following is considered an 
early manifestation of Local Anesthetic 
toxicity? 
a. loss of consciousness 
b. decrease heart rate 
c. increase respiratory rate 
d. decrease respiratory rate 
69. Staphylococcal infection spreads in the 
body through? 
a. blood 
b. skin 
c. mucosa 
d. lymph 
70. Which of the following is the reason 
behind the decrease in mandibular arch length 
during development? 
a. eruption of centrals 
b. eruption of canines 
c. medial drift of lower molars 
71. An inverted mesiodens was noticed 
radiographically in a 5 year old patient. 
Which of the following is the most 
appropriate management? 
a. surgical removal immediately 
b. extract of upper centrals to allow 
eruption of mesiodens 
c. wait until complete eruption of upper 
Incisiors 
d. wait till patient is 14 years of age 
72. Which needle is best to be used in 
administering an IANB in children? 
73. Non-necrosing granuloma is most likely 
associated with which of the following 
conditions 
a. gauge 30-lenght 20 mm 
b. gauge 30-length 10 mm 
c. gauge 27- length 20 mm 
d. gauge 27- length 10 mm 
74. In order to improve an implant’s 
emergence profile, which of the following 
should be implicated? 
a. increase depth at which implant is 
placed 
b. decrease depth which implant is 
placed 
c. place implant close to adjacent teeth 
d. place implant as far away as possible 
from adjacent teeth 
75. Deep palatal constriction and posterior 
cross bite will result in 
a. increase curve of speed 
b. decrease curve of speed 
c. accentuated curve of wilson 
d. decrease curve of wilson 
76. Which type of cement is best to be used 
for cementation of anterior veneer? 
a. light cured resin cement 
b. chemical cured resin cement 
c. dual cured resin cement 
77. In which of the following is Nitrous 
Oxide not contraindicated? 
a. malignant hyperthermia 
b. upper respiratory tract infection 
c. COPD 
d. claustrophobia 
78. Which of the following would expose the 
patient to the least amount of radiation? 
a. 20 digital PA 
b. digital PAN 
c. CBCT 
d. CT 
79. An increase in milliamperage of x-ray 
exposure would? 
a. increase contrast 
b. increase sharpness 
c. increase clarity 
80. Tombstone appearance is pathognomic to 
which of the following autoimmune lesions? 
a. erythema multiform 
b. pemphigus vulgaris 
c. pemphigoid 
d. lichen planus 
81. Which of the following traumatic injuries 
has the worst prognosis? 
a. intrusion 
b. extrusion 
c. lateral luxation 
d. subluxation 
82. Which of the following viruses can 
survive the most outside the body? 
a. HBV 
b. HCV 
c. HPV 
d. HIV 
83. The SNA angle in adolescents will 
a. increase 
b. decrease 
c. remain the same 
84. Which of the following drugs would most 
likely result in diarrhea as a side effect? 
a. pencilling 
b. nifedipine 
c. ciprofloxacin 
d. digoxin 
85. What is the best time for the dental 
treatment of a patient with active TB taking 
currently rifampicin? 
a. 3 months after resolution of infection 
b. 3 weeks after resolution of infection 
c. 3 days after resolution of infection 
d. there are no issues treating patient 
with TB 
86. While extracting an upper 2.8 using 
extraction forceps. The tooth slips from the 
forceps and the socket appears empty. Most 
probably this tooth is in the? 
a. buccal space 
b. infra temporal space 
c. maxillary sinus 
d. pterygoidmandibular space 
87. While extracting a lower 3.7 using 
extraction forceps. The tooth slips from the 
forceps and the socket appears empty. Most 
probably this tooth is in the? 
a. submandibular space 
b. buccal space 
c. glossopharyngeal space 
d. sublingual space 
88. Which of the following is the minimum 
amount of bone needed above ian canal to 
place an implant? 
a. 6 mm 
b. 7 mm 
c. 8 mm 
d. 9 mm 
e. 10 mm 
89. A patient came to your office with a PFM 
crown on tooth 44 in which the porcelain has 
chipped from metal. Which of the following 
is the initial management of this 
circumstance? 
a. the crown is removed, sandblasted in 
the laboratory, acid etched with 
phosphoric acid then bonded 
composite of the same shade applied 
b. silane coupling agent applied to the 
crown intramurally then bonding 
agents applied and light cured and 
composite of the same shade applied 
c. the metal surface is roughened with 
diamond bur, etched with hydrofluoric 
acid , bondingagent applied and light 
cured and composite of the same 
shape applied 
d. the metal surface is roughened with 
diamond bur, etched with phosphoric 
acid, bonding agent applied and light 
cured and same shade applied 
90. A 12 year old child weights 40kgs needs 
an extraction of tooth 63. His medical history 
indicated infective endocarditis that was 
treated 3 years ago. The child is allergic to 
penicillins. Which of the following regimens 
are appropriate for antibiotic prophylaxis 
before the treatment? 
a. clindamycin 800 mg po 30-60 minutes 
before the procedure 
b. clindamycin 600 mg po 30-60 minutes 
before the procedure 
c. clindamycin 400 mg po 30-60 minutes 
before the procedure 
d. clindamycin 200 mg po 30-60 minutes 
before the procedure 
91. How often do you need to take bitewing 
radiographs for a low caries risk 8 year old 
child? 
a. every 12-18 months 
b. every 6-12 months 
c. very 4-6 months 
d. every 2-4 months 
92. For children, which size film should be 
used when taking a bitewing radiograph? 
a. size 0 film 
b. size 1 film 
c. size 2 film 
d. size 3 film 
93. Posterior superior alveolar nerve block 
will anesthetize? 
a. pulps and buccal mucperiosteum of 
upper 8,7, 6 
b. pulps and buccal mucoperiosteum of 
8. 7, 6 , 5 and buccal root of 4 
c. pulps and buccal mucoperiostum of 
upper 8, 7 and 6 (except for the 
messiobuccal root) 
d. pulps and buccal periosteum of upper 
8,7 and 6 (except palatal root) 
94. Which of the following is a likely sign 
that can be observed in a patient diagnosed 
with acute periapical abscess? 
a. widening of the periodontal space 
b. discontinuity of the lamina dura 
c. well-defined periodical radiolucency 
d. j-shaped radiolucency 
95. Which is the easiest stain to remove using 
bleaching? 
a. yellow 
b. brown 
c. pink 
d. black 
96. The junctional epithelial attachment is 
formed by the confluence of the: 
a. junctional epithelium and the outer 
enamel epithelium 
b. junctional epithelium and the inner 
enamel epithelium 
c. junctional epithelium and the reduced 
enamel epithelium 
d. junctional epithelium and the 
periodontal ligament 
97. A patient presents to your office for an 
extraction. Medical history reveals that the 
patient has been on Bisphosphonates for the 
past 2 years. Which of the following is the 
most appropriate? 
a. proceed treatment without adjusting 
the dose 
b. consult with MD and decrease dose 
c. consult with MD and stop 
bisphosphanates 
d. priced without consulting physician 
98. A patient presents to your office for an 
extraction of 3.6. Patient states they will be 
having radiotherapy for lung cancer. Which of 
the following is the best course of action? 
a. perform the extraction of 36 before 
radiotherapy treatment 
b. extract 36 during the radiotherapy 
treatment 
c. extract 36 after radiotherapy treatment 
d. radiotherapy needed does not affect 
the timing of the extraction 
99. After assessing that 2.4 is restorable by 
assuming adequate ferrule and completing 
root canal therapy, you decided to place a 
post. Which of the following is the most 
significant consideration to take into account 
while place a post? 
a. place it 7-8 mm inside canal 
b. prepare canal space to achieve 
minimal widening 
c. place two posts in two canals 
d. Place the post in widest canal so you 
leave 2mm of gutta percha after 
preparing the canal 
100. You have competed RCT on upper 
incisor through palatal access. The tooth 
exhibits no discolouration. Which is the 
appropriate answer? 
a. composite resin 
b. all ceramic crown restoration 
c. veneer restoration 
d. GI restoration 
101. Which of the following would potentiate 
warfarin effect? 
a. acetaminophen 
b. azithromycin 
c. erythromycin 
d. nifedipine 
102. Which of the following is the most 
suitable site to take an infants pulse 
a. brachial 
b. carotid 
c. radial 
103. A patient with no allergies returns to 
your clinic 1 week after implant placement in 
posterior maxillary area. Patient complains of 
heavy head and bad odour with frequent nasal 
discharge. Which of the following is the 
antibiotic of choice? 
a. clindamycin 
b. clarithromycin 
c. penicillin V 
d. amoxicillin 
104. Early signs of internal resorption is best 
seen by which of the following radiographs? 
a. occlusal 
b. periodical 
c. bitewing 
d. panoramic 
105. After preparing tooh 1.6 for PFM crown, 
you realize it is overly converged resulting in 
poor retention. Which of the following is the 
most significant factor that would improve 
retention? 
a. reduce mesiodistal taper 
b. include retention grooves 
c. include retention boxes 
d. include anti-rotational key elements 
106. Which of the following viruses is not 
involved in periodontal disease? 
a. HPV 
b. CMV 
c. EBV 
d. cocksackie virus 
107. In a posterior implant the height of the 
crown is measured up to? 
a. first thread of the implant 
b. gingival margin 
c. crest of the alveolar bone 
d. Crown of adjacent tooth 
108. An acute alveolar abscessed tooth 1.3 
needs extraction, in addition to palatal 
infiltration which LA technique should be 
used? 
a. infraorbital block 
b. MSAN block 
c. Buccal infiltration 
d. PSAN block 
109. The prognosis of oral SCC is determined 
by 
a. stage of disease when first diagnosed 
b. location of lesion 
c. clinical appearance of lesion 
d. symptoms of patient 
110. While fabricating CD which of the 
following regulates the path of the condyles 
in mandibular movements? 
a. the height of the cusps of the posterior 
teeth 
b. the amount of horizontal and vertical 
overlap 
c. the size and shape of the bony fosse 
and menisci and muscular influence 
d. the vertical occlusion , centric relation 
and degree of compensating curve 
111. While cleaning canals with rotary 
instruments which technique would be most 
appropriate? 
a. crown down 
b. balance forces 
c. step back 
d. upper hand technique 
112. Material used in denture bases is? 
a. methylmethacrylate 
b. methylacrylate 
c. methacrelate 
d. Ethylate 
113. A soldered connector in FPD is best 
strengthened by? 
a. using higher carat solder 
b. increase its height 
c. increase its width 
d. increase the gap 
114. Which insurance should a dentist have 
before beginning a career? 
a. management insurance 
b. office insurance 
c. long life insurance 
d. disability insurance 
e. malpractice insurance 
115. The best way to evaluate dentin 
sensitivity for a short period of time after the 
placement of composite is to conduct? 
a. case report 
b. controlled clinical trial 
c. cohort study 
d. observational study 
116. Parallel posts compared to tapered posts: 
a. weaken the root by its wedge effect 
b. require more prep in root dentin 
c. indicated in thin roots 
d. extends to full working length 
117. Which of the following combination 
make the antibiotic therapy of widest 
spectrum? 
a. penicillin and tetracycline 
b. amoxicillin and clavulanic acid 
c. metronidazole and amoxicillin 
d. clindamycin and amoxicillin 
118. What is the most biologically accepted 
method when a RCT is indicated for a vital 
tooth? 
a. filling to the radiographic apex and 
filling to the radiographic apex 
b. filling 0.5-1.0 mm short of the 
radiographic apex and filling to the 
same length 
c. filling to the radiographic apex and 
filling 0.5- 1.0 mm short of the 
radiographic apex 
d. filling 0.5-1.0 mm beyond apex 
119. Four days after the extraction of a lower 
second molar in a 70 year old female patient, 
the patient complains of a diffuse, non-
painful, yellow, submandibular and 
suprasternal discolouration of the skin. What 
is the most appropriate management? 
a. apply cold compression 
b. apply heat and advice analgesics 
c. prescribe antibiotics 
d. no special treatment is required 
120. Which of the following is true regarding 
double gloving? 
a. the indication is patient specific 
b.it is indication procedure for patient 
with AIDS 
c. the indication is procedure specific 
d. it is indicated for a procedure that 
requires high degree of tactile 
121. Which perforation has the worst 
prognosis? 
a. furcation perforation 
b. perforation apical to the epithelium 
attachment 
c. perforation coronal to the epithelium 
attachment 
d. perforation at the apical third 
122. Which of the following is associated 
with mucosal pigmentations? 
a. methicillin 
b. minocyclin 
c. procainamide 
d. Methyldopa 
e. cyclosporin 
123. Erratic and inconsistent electric pulp 
tests occurs in all of the following except? 
a. tooth with multiple cans with different 
degree of pulp damage 
b. calcified canals 
c. rapid increase in the cement of the 
electric pulp tests 
d. partially necrotic molars 
124. Human immunodeficiency virus: 
a. cannot spread through saliva 
b. get attached to the biofilm in saliva 
c. gets attached to the tooth structure 
d. can be infected only through blood 
125. The presence of green stain on a child’s 
primary teeth is indicative of? 
a. intrinsic 
b. chromogenic bacteria 
c. Viral infection 
d. Genetic disorder 
126. The mother of a 6 year old child is 
concerned because her child has a double row 
of teeth. On examination, teeth 4.1 and 3.1 
are erupting lingual to 8.1 and 7.1. Teeth 8.1 
and 7.1 demonstrate significant mobility and 
radiographically have one quarter of the root 
remaining. The incisor segment is not 
crowded. What is the most appropriate 
management? 
a. reassure parent that this occurrence isa 
a variation of normal eruption 
b. disc 82 and 72 to allow eruption of the 
41 and 31 
c. extract teeth 81 and 71 at this 
appointment 
d. refer to orthodontist asap 
127. The minimum occlusogingival height of 
the pontic of a FPD should be at least? 
a. 3 mm 
b. 4 mm 
c. 5 mm 
d. 6 mm 
128. In pulp capping procedures, MTA 
properties differ from calcium hydroxide 
because MTA: 
a. has better dentinal seal 
b. more expensive 
c. less water soluble 
d. has a shorter setting time 
129. Which form of hepatitis does not have a 
known carrier state? 
a. Hep A 
b. Hep B 
c. Hep C 
d. Hep D 
130. Which of the following must be 
completed before performing periodontal 
surgery for a patient? 
a. obtain a microbial sensitivity test 
b. reduce pocket depth 
c. control etiologic factors 
d. scale and polish 
e. prescribe systemic antibiotics 
131. If a patient forgot to take antibiotic 
prophylaxis prior to his appointment, the 
dosage can be taken after the procedure 
within? 
a. 1 hour 
b. 2 hours 
c. 4 hours 
d. 1 day 
132. Which valve is most commonly affected 
by rheumatic heart disease? 
a. aortic 
b. pulmonary 
c. tricuspid 
d. mitral 
133. A patient on a vegetarian diet would be 
deficient in which of the following nutrients? 
a. ascorbic 
b. b12 
c. potassium 
d. sodium 
134. A posterior bite plane will: 
a. increase overbite and increase overjet 
b. increase overbite and decrease overjet 
c. decrease overbite and increase overjet 
d. decrease overbite and decrease overjet 
135. Which of the following teeth has the 
worst prognosis after periodontal treatment? 
a. 1.4 
b. 1.5 
c. 1.6 
d. 1.7 
136. Areas of isolated gingival recession are 
most frequently seen on teeth that are 
a. non vital 
b. moderately mobile 
c. ankylosed 
d. Labially prominent in arch 
137. A 5 year old child presents with deep 
caries and signs and symptoms of reversible 
pulpitis from tooth 6.5. Which of the 
following treatments is more predictable for 
this tooth? 
a. indirect pulp capping 
b. direct pulp capping 
c. pulpotomy 
d. pulpectomy 
e. extraction 
138. The most common medication to control 
pain following the acute onset of a migraine 
is? 
a. dichloralphenazone 
b. sumatriptan 
c. meperidine HCL 
d. diclofinal 
139. Addition of sodium bicarbonate to the 
Local anesthetic will: 
a. decrease allergic reaction of 
epinephrine 
b. presserve epinephrine 
c. increase pH 
d. reduce free base 
140. The most common site of intraoral SCC 
is theAnterior 
a. palate 
b. floor of the mouth 
c. gingiva 
d. buccal mucosa 
141. Which medication increases risk of 
bronchospasm in asthmatics? 
a. hydrocotrsine 
b. meperidine 
c. ketorolac 
d. acetaminophen 
142. Which of the following is the best way 
to prevent a child patient from lip biting after 
an IANB? 
a. remind the child and the parent that 
the tooth and lips are asleep and give 
a sticker on hand 
b. monitor the child in the waiting room 
until the soft tissues get partial 
sensation back 
c. inject child with oraverse 
d. protect the lip with gauze and cotton 
roll and ask the pattern to remove it 
once the child gets sensation back. 
answer 
143. During harvesting a graft for a free 
gingival graft procedure there is a risk of 
damage to 
a. nasopalatine artery 
b. greater palatine vein 
c. facial artery 
d. lesser palatine nerve 
144. Which of the following drugs is used for 
implant mucositis? 
a. hydrogen peroxide 
b. chlorhexidine 
c. nystatin 
d. benzamide chloride 
145. Which of the following bacterial 
enzymes is not related to the destruction of 
periodontal tissue? 
a. protease 
b. hyaloronidase 
c. collagenase 
d. deoxyribonuclease 
146. When treating a diastema with 
composite resin restoration, which of the 
following holds true? 
a. treat like class4 
b. treat like class 3 
c. reduce 0.5 mm 
d. bevel 
e. etch on enamel 
147. The height of occlusal rims at cuspid 
area in a complete denture should be? 
a. maxillary rim is 22 mm and 
mandibular is 18 mm 
b. mandibular rim is 22 mm and 
maxillary rim is 18 mm 
c. mandibular and maxillary rim is 22 
mm 
d. Maxillary and mandibular rim is 18 
mm 
148. A blown out type of probing is usually a 
sign of? 
a. a periodontal ligament abscess 
b. a non vital tooth 
c. combined lesiona 
d. furcation involvement 
149. Trigeminal neuralgia is associated with 
a. multiple sclerosis 
b. myasthenia gravis 
c. diabetes mellitus 
d. scleroderma 
150. Which of the following is the reason 
NSAIDS should be avoided with 
antihypertensive drugs? 
a. NSAIDs result in direct 
vasoconstriction with the high blood 
pressure 
b. NSAIDs inhibits the formation of 
vasoconstrictive prostaglandins 
c. NSAIDs inhibits the formation of 
vasodilator prostaglandins 
d. NSAIDs increase the effect and 
sympathetic nervous system