exercícios validacao canada 3

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1 Which one of the following agents can 
be used for periodontal regenerative 
surgeries? 
A low dose doxycycline 
B indomethacin 
C enamel matrix proteins(Emdogain) 
Also used in GTR and perioplastic surgery 
D chlorhexidine chips 
 
2 During the surgical extraction of tooth 
26 the infected palatal root tip(size 2mm) 
is accidentally displaced into the maxillary 
sinus. Exam shows a 5 mm perforation of 
sinus lining. 
D Antrostomy, retrieval of root and 
closure of oro-antral communication (need 
antibiotic due to its infected root, type of 
surgery orointra fistula) 
 
3 Which of the following can be used as 
part of management of aggressive 
periodontitis? 
A pen VK 600mg OID 8d 
B doxy 20mg OID 3w (should be 100mg 
QID 3w) 
C clinda 150 mg OID 2w 
D metro 500mg TID 8d- First choice is 
Amox&Metro combination but Metro can 
also be given alone 
 
4 A 10 year old boy who deviates his 
mandible forward upon closure has 
C anterior crossbite w functional 
If slide laterally- Unilateral posterior 
crossbite with functional shift 
 
5 Which one is considered as the most 
important risk factor for cerebrovascular 
accident? 
A smoking 
B hypertension 
C Renal disease 
D atrial fibrillation 
 
6 A 45 yr old pt with stable angina 
presents for root canal tx on tooth 36. The 
most important dental management 
consideration for this pt is 
A to limit use of epi 
B nitroglycerin premedication 
C short morning appt 
D adequate pain control (Pain and anxiety 
is one of the predisposing factors) 
 
7 insulin can result in decreased (reduce 
formation of new glacose) 
A glycogen storage in muscles (increased) 
B gluconeogenesis 
C triglyceride synthesis in liver(increased) 
D protein synthesis (increased) 
 
8 During dental tx of a pt w thoracic 
kyphosis (흉추흉만) 
A supine position should be avoid 
B hyperextension of the neck may result in 
closure of the airway 
C the head should be turned to one side to 
reduce the risk of aspiration 
D the space between the dental chair and 
the neck should be filled with a pillow 
(common in elderly) 
 
9 the max recommended dose of lidocaine 
2% for a 30 kg child is 
A 132 mg 
B 180 mg 
C 210mg (MRD 7*30) 
D 240mg 
 
10 What is the most appropriate 
management after extraction of tooth 84 in 
a 10 yr old child? 
A Place a lingual arch immediately 
B place a band and loop immediately 
C Reassess the pt in 6 months and place a 
lingual arch at that time if required 
D no additional tx is required 
Successor 44 erupts 10-12 yr old. 
Close to the eruption time, if within 6 
months no tx is required 
 
11 Which of the following anesthetics is 
most likely associated with paraesthesia? 
A Articaine (high %) 
B Bupivacaine 
C Mepivacaine 
D Benzocaine 
1st percentage 
2nd technique 
Lingual nerve affected, IANB not with 
Articaine 
 
12 Which of the following is not among 
the teratogenic effects of Alcohol? Central 
mid-face deficiency 
A Micrognathia(small jaws) 
B Microcephaly 
C Low nasal bridge 
D Minor ear anomalies 
E Short nose and palpebral fissures 
 
13 A 7 yr old pt presents with an ectopic 
eruption of his left upper first molar 
against the distal root surface of primary 
second molar. Treatment of choice? 
D A Brass wire placed between the 
primary second molar and permanent first 
molar 
As long as there’s no severe resorption of 
adjacent primary tooth, no cavity 
permenant, easiest space regaining 
 
14 Duing cementation of implant crown, 
removal of excess cement is easier for 
D zinc phosphate cement (Most difficult is 
resin cement) 
 
15 a 45 yr old female presents with goiter 
and exophtalmia. She also reports tremors, 
diarrhea and generalizes osteoporosis. The 
medication of choice is 
A Prednisone 
B Alendronate(used for osteoporosis) 
C Levothyroxine(used for 
hypothyroidism) 
D propylthiouracil 
Have to minimize epi 
 
16 concurrent consumption of metro and 
alcohol can result in all, except 
A flushing 
B cramps 
C severe headache 
D diarrhea 
E nausea 
Disulfuram(anti like reaction, similar 
sympotom 
 
17 A 35 year old female presents for 
esthetic correction of her gummy smile. 
She has a healthy periodontium and short 
anterior upper teeth. The distance between 
CEJ and gingival margin is 1-2 mm in the 
anterior region. The tx of choice 
A Ortho force eruption 
B Crown lengthening and osteotomy (btw 
CEJ so no perio disease) 
C crown lengthening, osteotomy and later 
veneer coverage 
Gummy smiles---crown lengthening at 
least involve 6 teeth, in harmony esthetic 
area but Broken crown in anterior, don’t 
do crown lengthening, cause disharmony 
in esthetic zone 
 
18 the flap design of choice for surgical 
removal of the broken root of tooth 34 is 
A Triangular flap 
B Rectangular flap 
C envelope flap(mental nerve, avoid 
vertical incision usually in ant) 
D semilunar flap(apicoectomy) 
 
19 Rapid palatal expansion in a 5 yr old 
can result in all of the following side 
effects except 
A Paranasal swelling 
B gummy smile 
C Midline diastema 
D Nasal hump 
RPE young age and can resorb so usually 
in mixed dentition 
 
20 a pt presents for two implants in 
posterior max to replace 2 missing 
adjacent teeth. surgeon plaining on 4mm 
diameter for second premolar and 5mm 
first molar. The minimum required 
mesiodistal dimension 
A 11mm 
B 13mm 
C 15 mm(1.5+4+3+5+1.5) 
D 17mm 
Single piece implant needs less space, for 
example lateral incisor 3mm space 
 
22 which one is not true regarding mineral 
trioxide aggregate(MTA)? 
A MTA has better sealing ability than 
calcium hydroxide 
B MTA induce dentin bridge formation in 
direct pulp capping 
C MTA is easy to manipulate and has a 
short setting time (Long setting time, not 
easy to manipulate) 
D MTA is not adversely affected by blood 
contamination(not sensitive to moisture) 
E MTA has a high PH(one of the main 
advantages) 
 
23 in a healthy pt the max recommended 
dosage of levonordefrin 
A 1 mg (epi x 5) whatever we have epi in 
healthy 0.2 cardio 0.04 
for levo 1: 22 
B 0.2 
C 0.4 
D 0.04 
 
24 diabetic coma (hyperglycaemia)can 
result in all except 
A Tachycardia 
B wet skin(Dry skin and heat) 
C Slurred speech 
D Acetone breath 
E Rapid respiration 
 
25 the implant dimension ideally should 
correspond to natural tooth 
A at CEJ 
B 1mm above CEJ 
C 2mm above CEJ 
D 1mm below CEJ 
E 2mm below CEJ(usually bone level 
2mm below CEJ and ideal put implant 
here)In anterior place implant deeper than 
this to help with emergence profile 
 
26 A pt presents 3 days after extraction of 
36, complaining from worsening pain and 
foul taste in the mouth. He also has 
reddening of skin and mild swelling. The 
most likely diagnosis? 
A edema 
B infection 
C alveolar osteitis 
D normal healing 
 
27 When epi 1/10,000 is indicated for the 
management of the management of an 
adult with cardiac arrest, the most 
appropriate dose to administer 
intravenously is 
A 1mg 
B 0.5 
C 0.1 
D 0.04 
In case of anaphylaxis epi 1/10,000 
0.1mg IV 
1/1,000 0.3-0.5mg IM/SC 
 
28 A significant increase in pt’s Sella-
Nasion to mandibular plane angle is seen 
in a pt that has 
B a lower face longer than normal 
 
29 which surgical techniques cannot be 
used to reduce the periodontal pocket 
depth? 
A Guided tissue regeneration 
B coronally positioned flap (used for root 
coverage---perioplastic surgery,does not 
increase attached gingiva) 
C Gingivectomy 
D Osteoplasty 
E Apically positioned flap 
 
30 The minimum distance between the 
dental implant and inferior alveolar nerve 
is (mental foramen-largest amount space, 
floor of sinus and nasal cavity, IANF, 
adjacent tooth) 
A 1mm 
B 2mm 
C 3mm 
D 4mm 
 
31 the mechanism of action of zoledronic 
acid(oral bisphosponate)is through 
A osteoblast inhibition 
B osteoclast activationC osteoclasts inhibition 
 
32 what is the major stimulation to 
breathing in a patient with severe 
emphysema 
A elevated arterial oxygen 
B elevated arterial carbon dioxide 
C depressed artery oxygen 
Healthy pt-elevated arterial CO2 is major 
stimulation to breathing; 
COPD pt-elevated arterial CO2 and 
depend entirely on depressed O2 levels to 
stimulate breathing (avoid oxygen) 
 
33 Which one is true regarding 
staphylococcus aureus 
D it can cause toxic shock syndrome 
Gram+ skin infection and usually develops 
ressistance to antibiotics 
 
34 All the following complications may 
occur after administration of LA, except 
A Muscle twitching 
B Circumoral numbness 
C Tinnitus 
D pulmonary embolism 
E Cardiac depression 
All the others are signs and symptoms of 
LA overdose 
 
35 bonding posterior ortho brackets too 
occlusally results in 
A extrusion of post teeth (bonding bracket 
too gingivally) same as ant 
B intrusion of posterior teeth 
 
36 The mucosa of the anterior 2/3 of the 
tongue receives its sensory fibers primarily 
from 
B CN V-lingual nerve 
taste VII, post IX, 
 
37 Severe active thumbsucking that 
continues after the eruption of permanent 
lower incisors commonly results in 
A skeletal open bite < openbite is more 
right answer even better than B 
B posterior functional crossbite- 
consequence of thumbsucking ---99% 
dental condition 
C Mouth breathing 
D temporomd disorder 
released question -thunbsucking after age 
of six most often result in? A a dental 
malocclusion 
 
38 placing an anterior implant too far 
buccally can result in all except 
A soft tissue recession 
B poor emergence profile 
C decreased chance of osseointegration 
(associated with surgical procedure) 
D increased risk of bone loss after loading 
(try put in lingually but not too far helps 
better emergence progfile because 
buccally cause gingival recession) 
 
39 A few days after surgical exo of tooth 
38, a 50 yr old pt experience a yellowish 
skin discoloration. During the one week 
follow up, the skin discoloration has faded 
but the pt complains from limited mouth 
opening, the most likely cause is 
A secondary infection 
B pterygomandibular space hematoma 
from PSA 
Elderly more likely to have hematoma 
later trismus developed 
C damage to internal pterygoid m 
D ant disc displacement with reduction 
E w. reduction 
 
40 Which one can safely be prescribed for 
a pregnant pt? 
A Erythromycin estolate 
B clindamycin 
C Diazepam 
D Atropine 
 
41 a 6 yr old pt presents for the exo of her 
unrestorable tooth 54. She has an 
unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart 
disease. Allergy to penicillin. Antibiotic 
prophylaxis is 
A 15mg/kg clindamycin 60 min before 
procedure 
B 50 mg/kg cephalexin 60 min before 
procedure (dosage is right, but pt has 
allergic to penicillin) 
C 20mg/kg clindamycin 60 min before 
procedure 
D 25mg/kg cephalexin 60 min before 
procedure 
 
42 A 10yr old pt presents with a fracture 
of the crown of a permanent max central 
incisor that occurred 2 hours ago. The 
incisor half of the crown is missing, 
resulting in a 2 mm exposure of vital pulp. 
The most appropriate initial management 
for this tooth? 
A DPC 
B pulpotomy 
C partial pulpotomy 
D Apexification 
E pulpectomy 
 
43 Which one determines the absence or 
presence of dental papilla between upper 
incisors? 
A gingival tissue biotype 
B the width and thickness of keratinized 
gingiva 
C the distance from the crest of interdental 
bone to CEJ 
D the distance from the crest of interdental 
bone to dental contact point (If 
distance<=5mm, papilla fills interdental 
space, longer distance the less to fill up 
contact and develop balcktriangle) 
 
44. In management of a pt with 
vasodepressor syncope in the dental office, 
the next step fw placing the pt in a supine 
(1st) position? 
A O2 (2nd) 
B monitor vital sign (3rd) 
C call 911 
D admin ammonia 
E admin atropin 
 
45 A 50 year old pt presents for extraction 
of tooth 35 which was diagnosed as 
hopeless. The pt is taking Warfarin 
because of history of atrial 
fibrillation(INR=3) The most appropriate 
management is to 
A Proceed with atraumatic extraction 
B prescribe vit K before extraction 
C use protamine sulphate before and after 
extraction 
D postpone the extraction until INR below 
2.5 
E refer the pt oral surgeon. (unlikely 
because it’s involve intraorbital damage) 
 
46 Which of the following fractures can 
result in numbness of the upper lip? 
B lefort II(infraorbital nerve) < Zygomatic 
fracture 
 
47 A reverse curve of Spee in the upper 
arch can result in an/a 
B anterior deep bite (absent spee too tx 
level the curve of spee in md) in md 
excessive curve of spee -ant deep bite but 
reverse spee- open bite; 
 
48 In a sextant with PSR Code 4 
C the deepest probing depth is greater than 
5.5mm 
 
49 the risk of off-axis loading is greater for 
the implant replacing tooth 
A 1.1 
premolar is not affected as lower incisor 
 
50 which one is wrong regarding internal 
bevel incision 
A removes the pocket lining 
B can be straight or scalloped 
C starts at the surface of the gingival 
apical (external incision) 
D produce a sharp, thin flap margin for 
adaptation to the bone-tooth junction 
others are features of internal incision 
 
51 Which of the following tissue has less 
tendency toward edema? 
A Attached gingiva 
B lower lip 
C FOM 
D buccal mucosa 
management of Edema? Ice, keep head 
elevated, ideally corticosteroid be admin 
before tissue damage; if given after injury 
not strong anti-edema effect more like 
anti-inflamatary effect 
 
52 The peak pain experiences after routine 
tooth extraction occurs how long after the 
procedure? 
C 12 hours (stay 2d) 
 
53 the max acceptable diastolic blood 
pressure to perform elective dental 
treatment is 
A 89 
B 99 
C 109 mmHg (180/110 should be avoid 
surgery) 
D 119 
 
54 Mesiolingual rotation of a permanent 
first upper molars following loss of 
primary second molars can result in a/an 
A increased arch with 
B decreased arch length 
C decreased vertical dimension 
D Class III molar relationship 
 
55 The most common and most serious 
side effect of chemotherapy is? 
A leukocytosis 
B neutropenia 
C thrombocytopenia 
D anemia 
E lymphocytosis 
 
56 in the emergency management of a pt 
with angina pectoris administer 
B nitroglycerin 0.3 mg tablet every 5 min 
up to a total of 3 tablets 
 
57 A 40 yr old diabetic pt presents with 
severe submandibular swelling and pain 
due to the infection of tooth 47. He 
complains from trismus and difficulty 
swallowing. The best management is 
D immediate referral to hospital (or os) 
 
58 THE primary reason for failure of free 
gingival autograft is? 
A infection (2nd) 
B inflammation 
C disruption of vascular supply (1st) 
D scar tissue formation at graft bed 
 
59Aberrant dentinal tubules that cross the 
dentinoenamel junction are called 
A enamel tufts 
B enamel spindle (can cause pain) related 
to odontoblast 
C enamel lamella 
D incremental lines 
 
60 endo tx on tooth 21 with a history of 
traumatic intrusion. Tooth has no previous 
resto. The most appropriate definitive resto 
for tooth 21? 
A direct composite resto of the access hole 
B an intracanal post with composite resto 
C Full ceramic crown coverage 
D An intracanal post w full ceramic crown 
coverage 
 
61 The mouth wash of choice for 
management of mouth sores caused by 
radiation therapy is 
A quaternary ammonium oral rinse 
B benzydamine hydrochloride(anesthetic 
property) 
C chlorhexidine gluconate 
D aqueous suspension of triamcinolone 
acetonide 
E diphenhydramine orl rinse(anesthetic 
property) not in form of oral rinse. In form 
of syrup 
Some mouth wash with lidocaine 
 
62 Compared to quaternary ammonium 
oral rinse,chlorhexidine mouth washes 
have a 
B higher substantivity 
 
63 Which of the following antibiotic 
combinations has a broader antimicrobial 
activity? 
C amox+metro 
 
64 A 20 yr old pt w acceptable OH 
presents w deep pocket(PPD:7-8 mm) 
around teeth 21,26,36,31,41and 46. He 
also has lost teeth 16 and 25 due to sever 
mobility. The most likely diagnosis is 
A Local severe chronic periodontitis 
B localized aggressive periodontitis(other 
than 1st molars and incisors, no more than 
2 teeth) 
If PD is 7mm, no gingival overgrowth, 
then there’s CAL deduct 3mm 
C generalized severe chronic periodontitis 
D generalized aggressive periodontitis 
(molars, incisors and 3more) 
 
65 A 25 yr old pt w a history of allergy to 
penicillin and asthma complains from 
shortness of breath after the injection od 
LA. Wheezing is noticeable and pt appears 
cyanotic. The first emergency 
management is to? 
A administer epi 1/1000 IM 
B administer diphenhydramin 50mh IM 
C admin salbutamol inhaler(2 puffs)--- 
asthma 
D apply abdominal thrusts 
E start CPR 
 
66 deeper placement of implant in the 
anterior region can? 
A improve emergence profile 
 
67 Which of the following local anesthetic 
agents is preferred for intraosseous 
injection? 
A 0.5% Bupivacaine 1/100,000 epi 
B 2% Lidocaine HCL 1/100,000 epi 
C 2% Mepivacaine 1:20,000 levonordefrin 
D 4% prilocaine plain(should be w/o epi 
otherwise palpitation but articaine we 
don’t have plain) 
 
68 Succinylcholine is mainly used as a/an 
C skeletal muscle relaxant(facilitate 
tracheal intubation) 
 
69 Decreased gingival bleeding is usually 
seen in 
A smoker pt 
B pregnant pt 
C pts with adrenal insufficiency 
D pts who receive antibiotic therapy 
 
70 A 10 yr old healthy female presents 
with mild midface retrusion. The most 
effective appliance to correct this 
B reverse pull headgear (cross bite mx 
deficiency) 
 
71 To surgically extract tooth 16 with 
gross caries, the vertical incision should be 
placed on 
C mesial line angle of tooth 15 (1 tooth 
mesial 1 tooth distal) 
Envelop flap(w/o vertical incisor)--- 2 
teeth mesial 1tooth distal 
 
72 A 5 yr old pt presents w missing all 
upper primary incisors due to severe 
decay. What is the best space management 
for this pt? 
A a removable partial denture 
B a fixed partial denture 
C a nance appliance 
D no space maintainer is required 
(permanent teeth will erupt shortly unless 
for speech or esthetics, depend on the 
compliance) 
 
73 during general anesthesia, all the 
following pt’s signs should 
be monitored closely except 
A blood pressure 
B pulse rate 
C respiratory rate 
D body temperature 
E oxyhemoglobin saturation 
 
74 Placing fissure sealants over an 
undetected dentinal caries most likely 
results in 
B caries progression (If in enamel, arrest 
of caries but its dentin) 
C debonding of sealants (is more because 
of moisture). 
 
75 Which of the following can result in 
deflection of mandible toward the left side 
upon opening 
A anterior disk displacement in right TMJ 
B Subcondylar fracture on the right side 
C Subluxation in the left TMJ 
D ankylosis of the left TMJ 
 
76 Backflow from low-volume saliva 
ejectors occurs when 
C pts close their lis around a saliva ejector 
 
77 which one is considered as the least 
severe form of peripheral nerve injury? 
A Axonotmesis 축삭절단 
B Neurapraxia--- (least severe) 
생리적신경차단 
C Neurotmesis—(1st severe) 신경잘림 
D Wallerian degeneration (the intrinsic 
degeneration of detached distal axons) 
 
78 a frequent finding in children with 
juvenile idiopathic arthritis is 
A mandibular retrognathia 
B severe deep bite 
C supernumerary teeth 
D enamel hypoplasia 
 
79 A 7 yr old pt presents w discolored 
tooth 11 after a traumatic accident a few 
months ago.Tooth does not respond to the 
vitality tests. The most appropriate 
management of tooth 11 is 
D revascularization 
As long as root apex foramen is wide 
open(6-8yr),necrotic tooth after trauma or 
caries ---revascularization 
When it is close to apex formation----
apexification 
 
80 The results of the new complete blood 
cell of a pt shows that the number of wbc 
is around 45,000/mm3. The pt is 
A a normal WBC count 
B leukopenia 
C Neutropenia 
D leukocytosis 
Normal wbc count 4,500-11,000/mm3 
 
81 Interleukin-1beta 
C stimulate bone resorption 
 
82 A Hawley appliance with a Z-spring 
can be used for correction of 
A an anterior crossbite(one tooth 
crossbite) 
We can use Hawley appliance with or 
without posterior bite plate and this 
depends on the depth of bite 
B a functional posterior crossbite 
C buccally placed maxillary canine 
D mild crowding 
 
83 A 50 yr old pt with history of stroke 
presents with trismus due to an acute 
apical abscess on tooth 46. He takes 
warfarin. Which antibiotics should be 
avoided ? 
A clindamycin 
B Amoxicillin 
C erythromycin (CYP 450 and 
anticoagulant) 
D ciprofloxacin 
 
84 What is the initial management of mild 
pericoronitits related to semi-impacted 
tooth 38? 
A antibiotic therapy---for severe cases 
B hydrogen peroxide irrigation (usually 
irrigation and debridement) 
C operculectomy (change of relapses is 
very high) 
D Extraction of tooth 38 
Pericoronitis: recurrent condition 
 
85 After periodontal surgery and during 
the wound healing, if osteoclasts reached 
the root surface first, it results in 
C ankylosis---destruct cementum, no PDL 
 
86 Topical fluoride therapy immediately 
before fissue sealant placement 
A is contraindicated 
B decrease the bonding strength of fissure 
sealant 
C should only performed for primary 
dentition 
D does not interfere with the bonding 
between the sealant and enamel 
 
87 A 60 yr old diabetic pt with a history of 
moderate chronic periodontitis presents a 
week after first session of SPR. His chief 
complaint is a tender swelling on buccal of 
tooth 46. Initial records show pockets of 4-
5mm and furcation involvement grade 1 
for tooth 46 the most likely diagnosis is 
a/an 
A endo abscess 
B periodontal abscess 
C endo-perio comnination 
D cracked tooth syndrome 
 
88 Which is NOT among the cardiac 
effects of epinephrine? 
A positive inotropic effect 
B increased cardiac output 
C decreased diastolic BP(or no effect) 
D decreased myocardial oxygen demand 
Increased Systolic BP 
 
89 removal of mx3rd molar, the most 
difficult is 
A Mesio-angular 
Mand the easiest is mesio-angular 
 
90 Tranexamic acid mouthwash is usually 
recommended to 
B reduce post operative bleeding in pts 
taking anticoagulants 
 
91 During the administration of LA for an 
IANB, the needle tip is located 
A inferior to the pterygomandibular raphe 
B external to mandibular ramus 
C internal to medial pterygoid muscle 
D superior to mandibular foramen 
 
92 Bilateral fracture of the mandible in the 
premolar region can potentially result in 
A post open bite 
B numbness of the tongue 
C airway obstruction 
D lipsilater deviation of the md 
 
93 The most appropriate management of a 
1mm diameter carious pulp exposure on a 
vital permanent lateral incisor in a 15 yr 
old healthy pt is 
A DPC 
B partial pulpotomy (can’t do caries don’t 
know how deep the inflammation is but 
traumatic >1mm can do) 
C complete pulpotomy 
D pulpectomy (apex is not formed choose 
apexogenesis(pulpotomy), but formed 
apexicification) 
 
94 Which one is among the complication 
of mitral valve stenosis? 
A rheumatic fever-- cause MVS 
B pulmonary hypertension ---the 
consequence of MVS 
C heart murmur 
D Ductus arteriosus 
 
95 After periodontal pocket formation and 
apical migration of junctional epithelium, 
the cells of junctional epithelium attach to 
cementum by means of 
C hemidesmosome 
 
96 A 26 yr old pt presents with severe pain 
from tooth 3.5. Clinical exam reveals a 
locolized, deep,periodontal probing depth 
extending to the apex of the tooth only on 
buccal surface of tooth 3.5. Pulp vitality 
tests are negative. The appropriate initial 
tx of this tooth is 
A SPR and oral health instruction 
B surgical flap debridement 
C root canal therapy 
E extract 
 
97 Codeine should be avoided in pt aged 
12 and under due to the potential rare 
complication of 
A liver damage 
B systemic tolerance to codeine 
C ultra-rapid metabolism of codeine 
(pregnancy oxycodone is preferable) 
D allergic reaction to codeine metabolism 
by-product 
 
98 Hb A1c value in a nondiabetic person is 
normally 
C 4-6% (Goal below 7% for diabetic pt) 
99 Extension of infection from an upper 1st 
premolar through the bone superior to the 
attachment of the buccinator muscle can 
result in infection of 
D buccal space 
 
100 A young pt presents for tx of his angle 
class II, div 1 malocclusion. Which of the 
following findings can result in less 
desirable results? 
A proclination of max incisors 
B long lower face 
C mild spacing of dentition 
D harmonious skeletal bases 
 
101 A pt calls 12 hours after simple 
extraction of tooth 46 complaining of 
bleeding from the socket. What is the most 
appropriate initial management? 
A ask the pt to come to the dental office 
immediately 
B instruct the pt to bite on a tea bag 
C order a complete blood test 
D refer the pt to an maxillofacial surgeon 
 
102 For surgical extraction of a tooth the 
amount of bone removal in the vertical 
dimension should be 
C one half to two thirds the length of the 
tooth root 
 
103 Which of the following agents 
increase the production of vasopression? 
A Angiotensin 1 
B Angiotensin 2 
C Aldosterone 
Vasopression ADH 
 
104 How much vasoconstrictor is there in 
three carpules of lidocaine 2%, epi 
1/200,000? 9*3=27 
C 27 ug 
 
105 a 59 yr old pt with a history of stroke 
2 years ago, presents for a surgical tooth 
exo. He takes Plavix. The most appropriate 
test before this procedure is 
A INR 
B bleeding time 
C platelet count 
D partial PT 
 
106 Green stains on primary teeth are 
A congenital origin 
B related to iron supplement medications 
C caused by enamel defects 
D the result of action of chromogenic 
bacteria 
E usually seen on coronal third of anterior 
teeth 
 
107 A pt presents with furcation grade IV 
involvement on tooth 16. Mesial root 
resection is advised. Tooth 16 is vital and 
has no pulp issue. Which of the following 
represents the appropriate sequence for 
this tx? 
A Root resection surgery followed by rct 
B RCT followed by root resection surgery 
C root resection surgery and sealing the 
area with MTA 
D root resection surgery followed by GTR 
procedure 
 
108 Tooth 35 with probing depth of 3mm 
has grade I mobility. X-ray shows no 
periodontal bone loss, but widening of 
PDL and lamina dura, especially at the 
apical one third. Pulp vitality tests are 
positive. The most likely diagnosis is 
C occlusal trauma 
 
109 After injection of IV phenobarbital to 
an anxious pt, she reports signs and 
symptoms of poisoning. The most 
important therapeutic measure is to 
C assure adequate repiration 
 
110 Which one is not among the potential 
effects of radiotherapy on oral mucosa? 
A keratosis 
B submucosal fibrosis 
C Mucositis 
D Loss of the sense of taste 
 
111 In the Moyers’ mixed dentition 
analysis, the size of the unerupted segment 
is predicted from knowledge of the 
mesiodistal width of the permanent 
mandibular 
A canine and bicuspids --- unerupted 
segment 
B canine and molars 
C incisors (Tenaka Johnson is the same) 
D molars 
 
112 In medical diagnosis, the ability of a 
test to correctly identify those with the 
disease(true positive rate) is 
A sensitivity 
Bop high negative predictive value 
 
113 A 40 yr old pt returns 1 wk after 
incision and drainage of submandibular 
space and ab therapy(amox 500mg, 
TID)with no change in size of the 
swelling. What is the most appropriate 
initial management? 
A insert a larger drain 
B order a culture and sensitivity test 
C order complete blood cell with 
differential 
D replace the antibiotic with Cephalexin 
500mg 
+metro wide spectrum 
 
114 A 60 yr old pt w a history of major 
depressive disorder presents for a tooth 
exo. She takes amitriptyline and sertraline 
for her condition. Injection of a carpule of 
Lidocaine 2%, epi 1/50,000 can result in 
A increased blood pressure 
B cardiac dysrhythmia 
C CNS depression 
D vasovagal syncope 
E convulsion 
 
115 Which one occurs more commonly as 
a result of wearing a max anterior bite 
plane? 
A intrusion of max incisors 
B extrusion of max posterior teeth 
C Extrusion of mand incisor 
D Intrusion of mand posterior teeth 
 
116 The main purpose of alveoloplasty 
before fabrication of a complete denture is 
to 
A eliminate undercuts that interfere w 
seating of the denture 
B increase the depth and improve the form 
of the vestibule 
C remove sharp bony projections and 
spicules 
D improve the surface area of the denture 
A&Calveolarplasty B&Dvestiopalsty 
117 5 yr old pt presents w intrusion of 
tooth 51. Radiographic exam reveals 
elongation of the root of the intruded 
tooth. What is the appropriate management 
A extraction of tooth 51 (elongating so it 
will affect successor tooth) <observation 
 
118 In periodontium of heavy smokers 
there is an increase in 
C collagenase activity 
 
119 Recurring episode of fever, infections 
and malaise, multiple oral ulcerations and 
severe periodontal bone loss are most 
commonly seen in a teen pt with 
A chronic myelocytic leukemia 
B megaloblastic anemia 
C cyclic neutropenia 
D crouton syndrome 
 
120 A 20 yr old female complains about 
throbbing pain after surgical exo of tooth 
38. She has a history of gastric ulcer and is 
taking ranitidine. She states that she 
already has taken OTC painkillers but still 
has the pain. The preferred analgesic for 
this patient is 
A Acetaminophen 
B Ketorolac 
C celecoxib 
D Meperidine 
If can give nsaids 
 
121 In a 15 yr old, the traumatic dental 
injury which is most likely to result in pulp 
necrosis on tooth 11 is 
A extrusion 
B intrusion 
C avulsion 
 
122 Discrepancy between tooth size and 
supporting bone is usually the most 
common etiology of 
B malocclusion w a class I molar 
relationship 
 
123 During the formation of secondary 
palate, the paired palatal shelves, 
originally in a vertical position, reorient to 
a horizontal position 
D as the tongue assumes a more inferior 
position 
 
124 A 30 yr old pt with a history of 
completely treated tetralogy of fallot 
during his childhood presents for 
extraction of tooth 48. Which one should 
be considered in managing this pt? 
A Avoid epi containing retraction cords 
B minimize epi dose in LA 
C Refer the pt to the OS 
D prescribe prophylactic antibiotics before 
the procedure 
E no special consideration 
If present prosthetic valve, then need ab 
 
125 A 60 yr old female complains from a 
chronic pain located on her tongue, 
xerostomia and dysgeusia. Intraoral 
evaluation shows normal findings. The 
most likely diagnosis is 
A acute atrophic candidiasis 
B glossogynia(burning mouth syndrome) 
C Allodynia 
D Anemia 
E Vit B deficiency 
 
126 During a periodontal flap surgery on 
anterior upper teeth the nasopalatine 
arteries and nerves were accidentally 
incised at the level of the foramen. What is 
the best management? 
A Suture ligation and pressure pack 
B Clamping with a hemostat 
C Terminate surgery and immediate 
referral to a neurosurgeon 
D no specific tx is required 
If it’s greater palatine, clamping and 
ligature 
 
127 Which of the following has both 
anesthetic and analgesic properties? 
A Analeptics 
B Barbiturates 
C Benzodiazepine 
D Neurolept analgesia 
 
128 Comparingrapid maxilla expansion to 
slow maxilla expansion, the rapid 
expansion has 
D similar long-term end 
 
129 An adult pt with a short face and 
dental deep bite presents for an ortho 
consultation. The preferred management is 
A extrusion of upper molars 
B intrusion of upper incisors 
C Extrusion of upper incisors 
D intrusion of upper molars 
 
130 Which one is not among the main 
sources of blood supply to the gingiva? 
A Supraperiosteal arterioles 
B Vessels of the PDL 
C gingival capillary plexus 
D interseptal arterioles 
 
131 The most appropriate tx of pulp polyp 
on tooth 85 in a 6 yr old child is 
B pulpectomy 
 
132 Which of the following teeth has a 
broader width of attached gingiva? 
A 45 
B 14 
C 11 
D 46 
Lower premolars are narrowest 
 
133 Tooth 13 shows 3mm wide recession 
on buccal with no evidence of bone loss 
interproximally. The width of attached 
gingiva is 3mm. The gingival recession on 
tooth 33 is Miller 
B class II - If 2mm recession than class I 
 
134 Which one is not among the side 
effects of chorhexidine 0.12% 
mouthwash? 
A Brown staining of composite restoration 
B transient impairment of taste perception 
C increased rate of supragingival calculus 
formation 
D increased risk of candidiasis 
Parotid gland enlargement 
 
135 Transient tachycardia following an 
IANB of Articaine 4% with epinephrine 
1/100,000 is most likely caused by 
A Moderate LA overdose 
B intravascular injection 
C Idiosyncratic reaction 
D Vasovagal syncope 
 
136 What is the first step in emergency 
management of a seizing patient during the 
acute phase? 
B protect the pt from nearby objects 
 
137 The probing pocket depth on buccal 
surface of tooth 23 is 6 mm and the 
distance between the margin of gingiva 
and CEJ is 1mm. Also the distance 
between the gingival margin and 
mucogingival junction is 8mm. The exact 
amount of attached gingiva on buccal 
surface of tooth 23 is 
B 2mm keratonized gingiva - pocket depth 
/ loss of attachment=doestn say recession- 
probing pocket depth it’s 5 but if it +said 
recession then 7mm 
 
138 Any aggressive dental procedure 
including extraction should be performed 
how long before the institution of 
bisphosphonate therapy? 
C 4-6 weeks 
 
139 Which of the following is among the 
requirements for performing a laterally 
positioned pedicle graft for root coverage? 
A Shallow vestibule 
B Thin periodontal tissue 
C Significant root prominence 
D adequate keratinized gingiva on the 
donor site (canine is contraindication) 
 
140 Which of the following area- specific 
curettes is used for instrumentation of 
lingual surfaces of posterior teeth? 
A gracey #9-10 
 
141 The most commonly used hemostatic 
agent for pulpotomy on primary teeth is 
A ferric sulfate 
B formocresol 
C glutaraldehyde 
D sodium hypochloride 
 
142 Use of posterior bite plane can result 
in 
A increased oj and ob 
B decreased oj and ob 
C decreased oj and increased ob (super 
erupt and lingually inclined) 
D Increased oj and decreased ob 
 
143 Which of the following agents is not 
used in management of a pt with ischemic 
heart disease? 
A Isosorbide dinitrate 
B Atenolol 
C Diltiazem 
D digoxin 
E Clopidogrel 
 
144 Which of the following studies 
attempt to evaluate the effects of a 
treatment? 
A Retrospective Cohorts 
B Prospective Cohorts 
C clinical trial RCT (randominize clinical 
trial) 
D Case-controls 
 
145 What is the material of choice for 
obturating the root canal of tooth 41 in a 
10 yr old child? 
A Calcium hydroxide 
B Zinc-oxide eugenol 
C gutta percha 
D MTA 
 
146 A pt with chronic periodontitis has a 
high number of 
A Streptococcus Viridans 
B Actinomyces Viscous 
C Treponema Pallidum 
D Tannerella forsythia 
TF PG PI FN TD AA 
 
147 All are among the interactions of 
digoxin except 
A Tetracycline 
B Clarithromycin 
C chlorpheniramine 
D Levothyroxine 
 
148 During the maxillary nerve block(high 
tuberosity technique) the solution is 
deposited in proximity to the 
A Pterygomandibular foramen 
B Pterygopalatine foramen 
C Foramen ovale 
D Foramen spinosum 
 
149 platelet count less than ____requires 
presurgical platelet transfusion or a delay 
in surgery until platelet numbers rise 
C 20,000/mm3 
 
150 A pt suffers from an acute apical 
abscess of lower second premolar. She 
also reports cervical lymphadenopathy and 
fever. According to her medical history 
she has type 1 allergy to penicillin. What 
is the best antibiotic tx in this case? 
A Cephalexin 250-500mg QID po 
B Clindamycin 150-300mg TID po 
C Clindamycin 150-300mg QID po 
D Cephalexin 250-500mg TID po 
E None of the above