Juniper.Testinside.JN0 100.v2014 06 02 (319 questões)

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JUNIPER JN0-100 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Number: JN0-100
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 48.8
 
 
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JUNIPER JN0-100 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-JUNOS)
Testinside
QUESTION 1
Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router?
A. Monitor
B. Maintain
C. Diagnose
D. Configuration
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
How many IP addresses can be configured in a given interface?
A. one primary and one secondary IP address
B. one IP address
C. as many IP addresses as you want
D. one primary and multiple secondary IP addresses
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
On a Juniper router, what is the default file used for syslog messages?
A. system
B. errors
C. security
D. messages
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which command is a valid way to view the status of an interface?
A. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 extensive
B. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 status
C. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 health-info
D. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 verbose
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which statement is correct about the validate option when upgrading JUNOS software?
 
 
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A. It will check the MD5 checksum of the install package.
B. It will check if the device meets the memory requirements for the install package.
C. It will check the compatibility of the configuration with the install package.
D. It will check if the device meets the storage requirement for the install package.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.
The routing policy shown in the exhibit has been applied as an export policy under protocols OSPF. The static
route for destination 10.1.1.0/24 is not being advertised as it was expected.
[edit policy-options policy-statement accept-10]
lab@London# show term 1 {
from protocol static;
then reject;
}
term 2 {
from {
protocol static;
route-filter 10.1.1.0/24 exact;
}
then accept;
}
How can the configuration be corrected to allow the route to be advertised?
A. rename term 2 to term 1
B. rename term 1 to term 3
C. insert term 1 after term 2
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What represents the decimal equivalence of 11000000 10101000 10101100 11110001?
A. 192.168.184.201
B. 192.168.172.241
C. 192.170.172.237
D. 192.170.184.221
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
On a Juniper Router, where is the JUNOS software located?
A. EPROM
B. Zip drive
C. hard drive
D. compact flash
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the interface connecting the routing engine to the packet forwarding engine called?
A. Loopback 0
B. management
C. internal (fxp1)
D. control interface
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
For which two functions is the Routing Engine responsible? (Choose two.)
A. packet forwarding
B. queuing functions
C. routing protocol control
D. JUNOS software operation
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the internal link between the Routing Engine and the Packet-Forwarding Engine?
A. It is only used for exception traffic.
B. It is an FE link called fxp2.
C. It is rate-limited to avoid DDOS attacks.
D. It is only used to send the forwarding-table from the Routing Engine to the Packet- Forwarding Engine.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In which mode are users allowed to configure the device, including interfaces, protocols, user access, and
system hardware properties?
A. priviledged mode
B. configuration mode
C. monitoring mode
D. operational mode
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
The auto-complete feature in the JUNOS CLI is triggered by which method?
A. space bar for both command and variable completion
B. space bar for command completion; tab key for variable completion
C. space bar for variable completion; tab key for command completion
D. tab key for variable and command completion; space bar for command completion
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You are at the system level. Which two would allow you to see the protocol's level candidate configuration?
(Choose two.)
A. exit configuration-mode <enter>
show protocols
B. exit configuration-mode <enter>
show configuration protocols
C. top <enter>
show protocols
D. top show protocols
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You enter configuration mode with the configure command. You need to abort the changes that you have made
and start again with a fresh copy of the active configuration.
Which command should you use?
A. rollback 0
B. load active
C. reset config
D. clear candidate config
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
You have just issued the command commit confirmed and your network continues to be operational with no
further changes required. You issue a commit and-quit. A short time later, users start complaining about
network problems. Which commands (in order) need to be entered to resolve this issue?
A. >commit confirmed
B. >configure
#rollback 1
#commit
C. >configure
#commit confirmed and-quit
D. >configure
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which command would allow you to compare two files stored on your router?
A. user@host> file show filename1 compare filename2
B. user@host> file compare files filename1 filename2
C. user@host> compare files filename1 filename 2
D. user@host> compare filename1 filename2
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which services must be enabled on a router to access JWEB?
A. web-management{
http;
B. remote-access profile{
http;
C. remote-access profile{
web-gui;
D. web-management{
web-gui;
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How can you reset your router or switch to factory defaults?
A. reset configuration
B. load factory-default
C. load override default
D. set default configuration
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
After factory-defaults have been loaded, which two syslog files will be present in the configuration?
A. system and chassisd
B. syslog-messages and NVRAM
C. messages and interactive-commands
D. authorization and events
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which three steps are considered part of the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. hostname
C. root password
D. user password
E. management access interface
Correct Answer: BCE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What are two valid initial configuration methods supported on Juniper routers? (Choose
two)
A. CLI
B. J-Web
C. JUNOScope
D. PCMCIA flash card
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which commnand would correctly define a router's host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
Correct Answer: CSection: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which command would correctly set a router's date and time?
A. # set date 199708290900.00
B. # set system time 199708290900.00
C. > set date 199708290900.00
D. > set system time 199708290900.00
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two.)
A. It gets updated automatically when you commit.
B. You need to create it by issuing request system configuration rescue save.
C. It is rollback file number 50 and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50.
D. You can load it by entering rollback rescue.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which command will save the current active configuration as the rescue configuration?
A. # save | rescue
B. # save rescue configuration
C. > request system configuration rescue save
D. > request rescue-configuration save current
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding interface properties? (Choose two.)
A. MTU and speed must be configured under each unit.
B. Physical parameters such as MTU, duplex mode, and speed are configured under the interface name.
C. IP and IPv6 addresses are configured under a unit-number.
D. DLCI numbers, VPI/VCI values, and VLAN tags are physical parameters.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which CLI command displays packet and byte counts for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show traffic counts
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which CLI command displays error statistics for an interface in real-time?
A. monitor traffic
B. show interfaces
C. monitor interface
D. show interfaces extensive
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
What is used to segment larger networks into smaller networks?
A. supernet masks
B. subnet masks
C. wildcard masks
D. route filtering
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. user@host> show route protocol static inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0
holddown, 0 hidden) + = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.192/26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.224/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
Using the route table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a destination IP
address of 192.168.2.239? (Assume the only routes to this destination are static routes.)
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the destination IP
address 192.168.2.158? (Assume only static routes are available for the destination.) user@host> show route
protocol static
inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) + = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both
192.168.2.128/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.20.106.10 via fe-0/0/5.106
192.168.2.136/28 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 10.210.14.131 via ge-0/0/0.0
192.168.2.192/27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13
> to 172.18.1.1 via ge-0/0/1.0
192.168.2.128/28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06
> to 10.210.14.130 via ge-0/0/0.0
A. 10.210.14.130
B. 172.18.1.1
C. 10.210.14.131
D. 172.20.106.10
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which protocol family is required prior to assigning an IP address to an interface?
A. family ip
B. family ip6
C. family inet
D. family inet4
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which command configures an address of 192.168.1.1 with a mask of 255.255.255.0 on interface ge-0/0/0?
A. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
B. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address 192.168.1.1/24
C. set interface ge-0/0/0 ip4 address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.1/24
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which statement is correct about logical units on Juniper Router interfaces?
A. Logical units are used only when a Layer 2 identifier is present such as a VLAN.
B. A logical unit of 0 is required when using a frame-relay DLCI.
C. A logical unit is always required.
D. Logical units are not required unless ATM or 802.1Q VLAN tagging is configured.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
After issuing the show interfaces terse command, you notice that the status of one interface is "up down". What
does this indicate?"
A. Layer 1 on the interface is up but Layer 2 is down.
B. Layer 2 on the interface is up but Layer 3 has not been configured.
C. The interface is administratively up but the link status is down.
D. The interface is up but has been administratively turned off.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which option is correct to configure the maximum transmit packet size of a Fast Ethernet interface?
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 ethernet-options mtu 1200
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 mtu 1200
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 mtu 1200
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 mtu 1200
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Which two statements are correct regarding units in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. Units in JUNOS are always required for any interface configured with logical addresses such as IP and
IPv6.
B. Units in JUNOS are only required when you are configuring sub-interfaces for inter-VLAN routing.
C. Unit numbers must match the DLCI or VCI numbers configured on the interface.
D. Unit 0 is the only value allowed on interfaces running HDLC, PPP, or for Ethernet interfaces not doing
VLAN-tagging.
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which two are correct when configuring an IP address for a Fast Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 address 10.1.1.1/24
B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 address 10.1.1.1/24
D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
The interface ge-0/2/3 is located in which flexible PIC concentrator slot?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which two are valid configurations of an interface? (Choose two.) A. [edit interfaces] lo0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.20.1/32;
}
}
}
A. [edit interfaces]
lo0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 192.168.20.1/24;
}
}
}
B. [edit interfaces]
fe-0/0/0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 10.1.20.1/32;
}
}
}
C. [edit interfaces]
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation?
A. unit 0
B. unit 1
C. unit 100
D. unit 255
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Which statement is true about configuring a back-to-back connection frame-relay on Juniper Routers?A. Both DTE and DCE will send keep-alives by default so no special configuration is required.
B. The circuit is negotiated automatically so no special configuration is required.
C. All equipment is by default DTE, one side should be set to DCE.
D. All equipment is by default DCE, one side should be set to DTE.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which two media types support asynchronous transfer mode? (Choose two.)
A. T3
B. SONET
C. Gigabit-Ethernet
D. EIA/TIA-232 serial
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Which user authentication methods are available in JUNOS?
A. MD5 and SHA
B. RADIUS and TACACS only
C. Local User Database
D. Local user Database, RADIUS, and TACACS+
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A router has been configured with the settings shown below:
[edit]
user@host# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus ]; The router also has a
local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What would happen if both the RADIUS and
the TACACS servers are not accessible?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the router is unable to authenticate due to the
authentication servers not responding.
D. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
A router has been configured with the authentication order settings shown below:
[edit]
user@host# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus password ];
The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What would happen if
both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers respond with a reject for user lab?
A. The user lab will not be able to login.
B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login.
C. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.
D. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the username and password provided could not be
found on the radius and tacacs servers.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
You have been asked to configure a login class which will permit its users to view and edit the configuration.
The class should only allow the configuration of the interfaces and firewall heirarchies. Which configuration
correctly accomplishes this?
A. accept-commands "(configure)";
accept-configuration "(interfaces|firewall)";
deny-configuration "(groups)";
B. permissions [ clear network reset view ];
allow-commands "(configure)";
allow-configuration "(interfaces) | (firewall)";
deny-configuration "(groups)";
C. permissions [ clear network reset view ];
permit-commands "(configure)";
permit-configuration "(interfaces) | (firewall)";
deny-configuration "(groups)";
D. permissions [ clear network reset view ];
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
How are the commands a user is allowed to enter defined in JUNOS?
A. Permissions are configured individually for each user.
B. Users are associated with user classes, and each class defines the permissions for entering commands.
C. There are four default classes with different permissions and you can only use these four.
D. Permissions are associated with each user ID.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which two statements about login classes correctly define their usage within the JUNOS software? (Choose
two.)
A. A different login class must be configured for each user.
B. Individual commands can be explicitly allowed or denied.
C. A user must be assigned to one of the default login classes.
D. Each login class is associated with one or more permissions flags.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
What is the primary syslog file?
A. /var/syslog-file
B. /var/syslog
C. /var/log/messages
D. /log-file
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What is the default local location for syslog and trace files?
A. /log
B. /home/log
C. /var/log
D. /etc/log
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
You delete a trace options file and later notice that no new entries are being written to this file. What would
allow the entries to be written to the file again?
A. Issue a commit of the current configuration.
B. Issue a commit full of the current configuration. C. Issue a commit all of the current configuration.
C. Issue a commit confirmed of the current configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which three statements are true regarding the Network Time Protocol (NTP) in JUNOS platforms? (Choose
three.)
A. MD5 authentication is supported.
B. A client always synchronizes to a server even when the difference between the server clock and the local
clock differs by a large amount.
C. JUNOS software can provide a primary time reference.
D. The boot-server configuration allows a router to synchronize its clock when it boots up, regardless of the
offset between the NTP clock source and its internal clock.
E. It is useful to correlate timestamps on log files and other events for troubleshooting and forensics.
Correct Answer: ADE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
What is the maximum difference between a NTP server's clock and the system clock for synchronization to be
successful?
A. 60 seconds
B. 120 seconds
C. 600 seconds
D. 1000 seconds
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Where are files queued for transmission when using the configuration archive transfer-on- commit function?
A. /var/config
B. /var/queue
C. /var/transfer/queue
D. /var/transfer/config
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which command configures the router to send SNMP link-related notifications such as up-down transitions and
line status changes?
A. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status
B. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories link
C. set snmp log link-status
D. set snmp trap link-status
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which naming convention is used by Juniper Routers when archiving their configurations to a remote server?
A. yyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf.gz
B. host-name_juniper.conf.gz_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
C. yyyymmdd_HHMMSS_host-name_juniper.conf
D. host-name_juniper.conf_yyyymmdd_HHMMSS
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which command allows you to view interface usage details in real-time?
A. user@host> debug interface interface-name
B. user@host> monitor usage interface-name
C. user@host> monitor interface interface-name
D. user@host> traceoptions interface interface-name
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
The monitor traffic command closely resembles which UNIX-based utility?
A. ps -x
B. passwd
C. ls -a-l
D. tcpdump
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which type of traffic will cause Policed Discards errors on an interface on a JUNOS device?
A. Traffic that does not match any route in the forwarding table.
B. Traffic that exceeds the bandwidth of the interface.
C. Traffic of unsupportedprotocols on that interface.
D. Traffic arriving on unknown virtual-circuits on that interface.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
If a SONET/SDH interface transmit link fails between two JUNOS devices, which two alarms or defects would
be seen on those devices? (Choose two.)
A. LOS
B. REI
C. BIP-B3
D. RDI
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
To troubleshoot interface problems, you can use both the disable command and the deactivate command.
Which two statements are correct?
A. If the interface is disabled, the logical unit will administratively shutdown.
B. If the interface is deactivated, the physical interface will administratively shutdown.
C. If the interface is deactivated, the interface configuration is ignored during commit.
D. If the interface is disabled, the logical unit configuration is ignored during commit.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
In Ethernet networks, duplex mismatches will lower performance. Which error statistics can be seen if a duplex
mismatch is present?
A. collisions on the full-duplex side; runts on the half-duplex side
B. collisions on the full-duplex side; collisions on the half-duplex side
C. collisions on the half-duplex side; framing errors on the full-duplex side
D. collisions on the half-duplex side; giants on the full-duplex side
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
When using the monitor traffic command to view traffic arriving on an interface, which command would save
the data collected to a file on the router?
A. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 save <file>
B. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 | write <file>
C. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 write-file <file>
D. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 | collect <file>
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which command would you type to see a concise display of which interfaces are up and which are down?
A. show interfaces brief
B. show interfaces status
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces terse
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
When troubleshooting ATM, which command would allow you to test reachability from one side of an ATM
cloud to the other?
A. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 end-to-end
B. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 circuit
C. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 far-end
D. ping atm vci 0.100 interface at-0/1/0 final-hop
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 
 
ht t p:/ / w w w .gratisexam.com/ 
QUESTION 68
Which three SONET network elements are used for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
A. line
B. path
C. circuit
D. section
E. segment
Correct Answer: ABD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
What is used to view status messages sent to a file named "test" as they are sent?
A. monitor start test
B. show log test
C. view log test
D. show test | realtime
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which command is used to retrieve the serial numbers of a Juniper device?
A. show version
B. show chassis hardware
C. show hardware detail
D. view hardware database
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which command is used to show active alarms on a Juniper device?
A. file list alarm
B. show chassis alarms
C. show chassis state
D. show hardware alarms
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which operational command allows a user to view the exhaust temperatures of a Juniper device?
A. show chassis state
B. file list alarm
C. show chassis alarms
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Which command will show which message is displayed on a Juniper Router's LCD status screen?
A. show chassis lcd
B. show chassis fpd
C. show chassis craft-interface
D. show chassis status-window
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which command would allow you to login to FPC 1 to collect FPC specific logs?
A. start shell fpc1
B. start shell tnp1
C. start shell tnp address 1
D. start shell pfe network fpc1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which command will display the temperature of the Routing Engine's CPU?
A. show chassis environment
B. show chassis routing-engine
C. show chassis temperatures
D. show chassis status
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Which command allows you to decode packets in JUNOS?
A. debug packet interface-name
B. show interface extensive
C. traceoptions interface-name
D. monitor traffic interface interface-name
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
The monitor traffic command provides access to which utility?
A. tcpdump
B. telnet
C. traceroute
D. netstat
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Which two statements regarding traceroute on JUNOS devices are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Traceroute transmits ICMP echo-request packets.
B. Traceroute transmits UDP packets.
C. Traceroute receives ICMP echo-reply packets.
D. Traceroute receives ICMP port-unreachable packets.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
If you want to test if fragmentation is causing problems on the network, which two ping command options are
useful? (Choose two.)
A. ttl
B. size
C. rapid
D. do-not-fragment
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Which command would initiate a loopback on a Gigabit Ethernet interface ge-0/0/0?
A. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 loopback
B. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options loopback
C. > set interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback
D. > loopback ge-0/0/0
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
When a local loopback is activated on a PPP serial link, what indicates that the local interface is good?
A. A ping to the local address succeeds.
B. A ping to the remote address succeeds.
C. A ping to the remote address received a 'TTL expired' message.
D. The interface shows a flag indicating that a loop is detected.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which two loopback types are supported for serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.)
A. Local
B. Far End
C. Remote
D. Bidirectional
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
How is a loopback cleared on interface ge-0/0/0?
A. Issue the operational command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback local.
B. No command is necessary, the loopback times-out in 5 minutes.
C. Issue the configuration command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback, then commit.
D. Issue the configuration command delete interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options loopback , then commit.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which CLI command is used to upgrade a Juniper router?
A. load package
B. load override terminal
C. request system software add
D. request system software upgrade
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
When performing password recovery, which command should be entered at the boot prompt?
A. boot -s
B. boot -r
C. boot single
D. boot recovery
Correct Answer:A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
What are three correct steps to reset a lost root password? (Choose three.)
A. Press the TAB key when prompted.
B. Enter boot -p.
C. Enter recovery when prompted.
D. Commit the change.
E. Reboot.
Correct Answer: CDE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
In which routing table would you find an OSPF V2 route?
A. ipv4-unicast
B. inet.0
C. inet.4
D. inet.ipv4
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
By default, which routing table is used to store unicast IPv4 routes?
A. inet.0
B. inet.1
C. inet.2
D. inet.3
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which two statements are correct about routing tables in JUNOS? (Choose two.)
A. There are separate tables for IPv4 and IPv6 called inet.0 and inet6.0 respectively.
B. They only contain the best possible route to each destination.
C. All running protocols can populate the routing tables at the same time.
D. Routes with the highest preference value are placed as active routes in the routing table.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Which type of routes are held in Inet.0?
A. multicast and unicast IPv4 routes
B. ARP tables and MAC reachability
C. IP version 4 unicast routes
D. IP version 6 and IP version 4 routes
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which two statements are correct regarding default protocol preference values? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF has a single preference value for both internal and external routes.
B. RIP is preferred over OSPF external routes.
C. Direct, local, and static routes have the same preference value.
D. OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP (both IBGP and EBGP).
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
What is the role of route preference?
A. It is used to determine which route should become active.
B. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding.
C. It is used to determine what routes to accept into the routing table.
D. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal cost paths.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
What is the default protocol preference for OSPF external routes?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 150
D. 160
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
What is the default protocol preference for BGP EBGP routes?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 170
D. 175
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the
* indicate?
A. The route is a direct route.
B. The route was selected as active.
C. The route is a default route.
D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which command allows viewing of only OSPF routes?
A. show ip ospf route
B. show ip route protocol ospf
C. show route protocol ospf
D. show ospf table
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which two statements are true of the forwarding table? (Choose two.)
A. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane only.
B. The forwarding table contains both active and inactive routes.
C. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane and the forwarding plane.
D. The forwarding table uses a longest match lookup for forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which statement is true about a forwarding table?
A. It stores a subset of information from the routing table.
B. It contains routes learned from all protocols to a destination.
C. It provides a database for routes selected and placed into the routing table.
D. Every routing protocol maintains its own forwarding table.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which statement accurately defines the role of a Qualified Next Hop?
A. It is any alternative path for best effort traffic.
B. It is the next hop of the active route to a directly attached device.
C. It is the next hop for a route from a qualified protocol.
D. It is an alternative next hop for a static route.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
What is correct regarding the configuration shown below? static route 0.0.0.0/0
qualified-next-hop 172.30.25.1 preference 7
next-hop 172.30.25.5
A. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because the address has the lowest value.
B. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because it is listed first.
C. The next-hop 172.30.25.1 is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference.
D. The next-hop 172.30.25.5 is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
What are three advantages of dynamic routing protocols over static routing protocols?(Choose three.)
A. lower administrative overhead
B. increased network availability
C. greater network scalability
D. easier to implement qualified next hops
E. easier ECMP route implement
Correct Answer: ABC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Which statement is correct about a Routing Policy term?
A. A term must contain a "from" statement.
B. A term acts like "if" and "then" statements.
C. The most specific term has precedence.
D. Terms can be written in any order to achieve the same behavior.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
A routing policy has three terms and the first term of the policy does not contain a terminating action. What will
become of the routes after they have been evaluated by the first term?
A. In the absence of a terminating action, all routes are accepted.
B. The route will be evaluated by the second term in the policy.
C. The default action will be applied.
D. In the absence of a termination action, all routes are rejected.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Which statement is true about import and export routing policies?
A. Import policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table.
B. Export policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table.
C. Export policies are applied before the routing table.
D. Import polices are applied after the routing table.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Your routing table contains four static routes which you need to redistribute to your OSPF peers. Which method
would accomplish this?
A. Apply an import policy to OSPF; this will import the static routes into OSPF.
B. Apply an export policy to protocol "static"; this will export the routes to other protocols.
C. Apply an import policy to the forwarding table; this will import the routes, allowing them to be forwarded to
OSPF neighbors.
D. Apply an export policy to OSPF; this will export the static routes to your OSPF neighbors.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
Which three are considered match criteria in a policy? (Choose three.)
A. prefix-list
B. protocol ospf
C. next-term
D. AS path
E. prefix-term
Correct Answer: ABD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
What is a vaild match criteria for a firewall filter?
A. from protocol tcp
B. from url
C. from community
D. from aclCorrect Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Which two policy actions are considered flow control actions? (Choose two.)
A. reject
B. community add
C. next term
D. next policy
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
What is a vaild action for a firewall filter?
A. then drop
B. then count
C. then allow
D. then community add
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
What happens when a route does not match any user configured policies?
A. The route is rejected.
B. The route is accepted.
C. The route is given a lower priority.
D. The route is sent to the default policy.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Click the Exhibit button.
term 1 { from protocol ospf;
then {
preference 110;
accept;
}
}
term 2 {
from protocol static;
then accept;
}
term 3 {
from {
protocol static;
route-filter 172.10.0.0/16 orlonger;
}
then reject;
}
term 4 {
from {
protocol static;
route-filter 172.10.16.0/24 exact;
}
then next policy;
}
Given the policy shown in the exhibit, what will happen to Static route 172.10.16.0/24?
A. accept
B. reject
C. next-policy
D. go to default policy
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which two commands are needed to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to OSPF
neighbors? (Choose two.)
A. edit policy-options policy-statement policy-name set term 1 from protocol static set term 1 then accept
B. edit ospf policy
set from protocol static set 1 then accept
C. set protocols OSPF export policy-name
D. set protocols OSPF policy policy-name
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
You are configuring a firewall filter.
Which "from" criterion would match only those packets destined for 10.10.10.1?
A. [edit firewall filter test]
root@router# set term 1 from address 10.10.10.1
B. [edit firewall filter test]
root@router# set term 1 from destination-address 10.10.10.1
C. [edit firewall filter test]
root@router# set term 1 from destination 10.10.10.1
D. [edit firewall filter test]
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
How do you send static routes to a RIP neighbor?
A. By default, RIP automatically sends static routes.
B. Configure the static route with a next hop of the RIP neighbor.
C. Configure redistribute static under [edit protocols rip].
D. Apply an export policy within RIP that matches on the routes, and accepts it.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
Which two statements describe the default routing policy for BGP? (Choose two.)
A. Advertise only locally originated routes.
B. Accept all BGP routes and import into inet.0.
C. Advertise all active BGP routes.
D. Advertise only EBGP routes.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
Click the Exhibit button. term 1 { from {
source-address {
0.0.0.0/0;
}
destination-address {
10.1.0.0/16;
}
}
then {
log;
reject;
}
}
term 2 {
from {
destination-address {
10.1.1.0/24;
}
}
then accept;
}
term 3 {
from {
source-address {
20.2.0.0/16;
}
destination-address {
10.1.0.0/16;
10.1.1.1/32 except;
}
}
}
}
Given the firewall filter shown the exhibit, a packet has a source IP address of 20.2.2.1 and a destination
address of 10.1.1.1.
How can the packet be changed to discard and count it?
A. rename term 4 to term 1
B. rename term 1 to term 5
C. insert term 4 before term 1
D. insert term 4 before term 3
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
What is the last CoS process performed prior to a packet leaving a router?
A. Rewrite Marker
B. Multifield Classifier
C. Policing
D. BA Classifier
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
When is the BA Classifier engaged for identifying the forwarding class of traffic in a Juniper router?
A. after a packet is identified by a multifield classifier
B. after the traffic passes though a shaper
C. prior to ingress policing of traffic
D. while the packet is stored in the switching fabric of the router
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
Which two options are reasons for using traffic classification? (Choose two.)
A. to use the classification to route traffic
B. to use the classification to reorder packets from various sources
C. to use the classification to discard malformed packets
D. to use the classification to provide the configured service level
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
What is the purpose of classification, rewrites, and queuing in Juniper routers?
A. to provide policy based routing
B. to provide class of service capabilities
C. to provide firewall filtering capabilities
D. to provide unified threat managment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 121
What are three components of a scheduler? (Choose three.)
A. Forwarding Class
B. Priority
C. TOS Marking
D. Buffer Size
E. RED Configuration
Correct Answer: BDE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
When configuring a scheduler map, which two are referenced? (Choose two.)
A. Forwarding Class
B. Scheduler
C. Rewrite Rules
D. Priority
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
What represents the decimal equivalence of 10101100 00011111 11001001 11000101?
A. 172.28.187.189
B. 172.31.201.197
C. 172.30.231.182
D. 172.19.151.107
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Which two statements are true regarding an Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.)
A. The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a switch is used.
B. The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a hub is used.
C. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
D. If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which three of the following options are NOT fields found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
A. Version
B. Type
C. Source Port
D. Flags
E. Data
Correct Answer: ACD
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Which two fields are found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)
A. Version
B. TTL
C. Checksum
D. Flags
E. Data
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
Which two statements about subnet masks are true? (Choose two.)
A. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
B. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion.
C. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
D. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which two protocols are connection-oriented? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet
B. PPP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Which three steps are part of the PPP CHAP 3-way handshake? (Choose three.)
A. The caller sends a challenge to the authenticator.
B. The authenticator sends a challenge to the caller.
C.The caller encrypts the challenge using a secret.
D. The caller sends a success message to the authenticator.
E. The authenticator encrypts the challenge using a secret.
Correct Answer: BCE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
You have been asked to use a 30 bit subnet mask to segment the following network block: 108.12.5.0. How
many useable subnetworks and usable hosts could be created?
A. 32 networks with 8 hosts
B. 62 networks with 2 hosts
C. 30 networks with 16 hosts
D. 32 networks with 14 hosts
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
 
 
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