IBM Certification C1000-174 Exam Dumps

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C1000-174
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment v9.0.5 Administrator
Full version: 235 Q&As
Full version of C1000-174 Dumps
Share some C1000-174 exam dumps below.
1. What does "CPU utilization" refer to in the context of system monitoring?
A. The percentage of time the CPU is executing processes
B. The frequency at which the CPU accesses memory
C. The capacity of the CPU cache
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D. The rate of data transfer between the CPU and peripherals
Answer: A
2. Which protocol is commonly used for the automatic configuration and management of
network devices?
A. HTTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. IPsec
Answer: B
3. When installing interim fixes, which of the following is a valid repository option?
A. Main repository
B. Local repository
C. Secured repository
D. Compressed repository
Answer: D
4. What is one of the steps to enable single sign-on (SSO) between multiple IBM WebSphere
Application Servers?
A. Retrieve an LTPA key file from IBM Support.
B. Generate an LTPA key file from IBM Rational Application Developer.
C. Retrieve the LTPA key file from the installation media, and import into the WebSphere
Integrated Solutions Console.
D. Export an LTPA key and password from one of the IBM WebSphere Application Server cells,
and import it into other cells that are participating in SSO.
Answer: C
5. Which encryption protocol is commonly used for securing internet communication?
A. WEP
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. FTPS
Answer: C
6. What does the delta configuration checkpoint contain?
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A. All the changed (newer version) configuration files.
B. Before and after versions of configuration files that have changed
C. Backup (older version) of the configuration files that have changed
D. An .xml file containing a list of changes and configuration file detAILS
Answer: B
7. When setting up a local development environment, what does "LAMP" stand for?
A. Linux, Apache, MySQL, Python
B. Laravel, Angular, MongoDB, PHP
C. Linux, Angular, MariaDB, Perl
D. Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP
Answer: D
8. What certificate expiration option should be disabled to prevent possible outages?
A. Enable checking.
B. Enable expiration check notification.
C. Delete expiring certificates and signers.
D. Replace expiring self-signed certificates automatically.
Answer: D
9. Which of the following gives clues when comparing traces from different processes and
correlating events of different servers in the same data center?
A. Thread ID
B. Timestamp
C. Message ID
D. Exception from top of stack trace
Answer: B
10. What must be done to uninstall an application using the monitored directory functionality?
A. Put a file named ApplicationName_delete in the monitored directory.
B. Add a version of the application with no files inside of it to the monitored directory.
C. Add a tag to the web.xml of the application, and add the file to the monitored directory.
D. Add a properties file that has DELETE=true in the header of the properties sections, and add
it to the monitored directory.
Answer: B
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11. An administrator wants to verify an IBM WebSphere Application Server installation by
examining the installation’s directory structure. In this example, <WAS_installation_directory>
indicates the installation’s root directory.
What is one directory tree structure that indicates a successful installation of the product files?
A. <WAS_installation_directory>/web
B. <WAS_installation_directory>/bin
C. <WAS_installation_directory>/profiles
D. <WAS_installation_directory>/installableApps
Answer: B
12. What is the primary goal of Dynamic Resource Allocation in an intelligent management
setup?
A. Locking resources to specific applications
B. Dynamically adjusting resources based on demand
C. Rigid allocation of resources
D. Limiting resource usage
Answer: B
13. Which of the following is a package manager for JavaScript?
A. npm
B. Pip
C. Composer
D. Maven
Answer: A
14. What does the CDcom.ibm.webshpere.alarmthreadmonitor.generate.javacore JVM
argument do?
A. Creates a javacore dump when a thread is hung
B. Generates a Trace message that a javacore should be generated
C. Generates a SystemOut message that a javacore should be generated
D. Allows the administrator to choose whether or not to generate a javacore when a hang is
detected
Answer: A
15. What is the purpose of a "build tool" in software development?
A. To create documentation
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B. To generate reports
C. To compile, test, and package code
D. To design user interfaces
Answer: C
16. What is one of the benefits of using a federated repository over a user registry?
A. Does not support identity profiles
B. Supports only one registry in a realm
C. Supports multiple registries within a realm
D. Provides account and password policy support
Answer: C
17. Which is true when an administrator properly updates a single file within an application?
A. The administrator can use a partial application update.
B. The administrator must redeploy the full application file.
C. The administrator can manually update the file on the file system.
D. The administrator must uninstall the application, and then, reinstall with the updated
application file.
Answer: D
18. What is the default location for heap dumps?
A. /logs
B. /profiles/logs
C. /logs/server1
D. <profile_root>/<profile>
Answer: D
19. What determines which On Demand Routers (ODRs) a Web server forwards requests to?
A. The default order in the ODR_Module_Routing_Poilicy.xml.
B. The configuration scope determines which ODRs are included in httpd.conf.
C. The configuration scope determines which ODRs are included in plugin-cfg.xml.
D. The configuration scope determines which ODRs are included in HTTPplugin-cfg.xml.
Answer: C
20. An administrator noticed that one of the servers in the core group is experiencing
OutOfMemory. As a result, other servers in the core group failed to start.
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What core group custom property should the administrator tune to prevent the affected server
from impacting other servers in the core group?
A. IBM_CS_OOM_ACTION
B. IBM_CS_DATASTACK_MEG
C. IBM_CS_WIRE_FORMAT_VERSION
D. IBM_CS_HAM_PROTOCOL_VERSION
Answer: A
21. Which process involves identifying and resolving software, hardware, or network-related
issues that affect system performance?
A. Debugging
B. System Formatting
C. Code Refactoring
D. Version Control
Answer: A
22. What is the primary purpose of an IDE (Integrated Development Environment)?
A. To format code
B. To manage databases
C. To provide a comprehensive development environment
D. To install operating systems
Answer: C
23. What is the primary purpose of an Application Server in the deployment of applications?
A. Managing user authentication
B. Running applications and providing runtime environments
C. Storing application data
D. Controlling network traffic
Answer: B
24. Which feature dynamically detects and mitigates security threats in an intelligent
management environment?
A. Reactive Security
B. Predictive Response
C. Proactive Security
D. Passive Monitoring
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Answer: C
25. When updating an application, what is important to keep in mind?
A. The application is only updated during the next server restart.
B. The application is automatically stopped, updated, and restarted.
C. The application is only updated during the next restart of the application.
D. The application is stopped, updated, and restarted at the scheduled time.
Answer: B
26. What does the principle of "Least Privilege" refer to in security?
A. Providing every user with maximum privileges
B. Limiting user access rights to the minimum necessary to perform their tasks
C. Allowing unrestricted access to sensitive data
D. Granting access basedon job titles
Answer: B
27. A configuration checkpoint could not be restored and could only be viewed.
What could be the reason?
A. File system permissions have prevented restoration.
B. The user ID being used was configured as an Operator.
C. The antivirus software on the system prevents restoration.
D. Configuration checkpoint has been corrupted on the file system.
Answer: B
28. Which process involves configuring and managing software, applying updates, and ensuring
application availability in a live environment?
A. Development
B. Deployment
C. Application Administration
D. Debugging
Answer: C
29. An administrator upgrades the IBM DB2 JDBC driver. The test connection operation fails.
On checking the System.Out log the administrator finds that the JVM is still using the old JDBC
driver.
What could be the possible reason for the failure?
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A. No driver JARs exist.
B. The driver upgrade failed.
C. There are multiple drivers in the provider classpath.
D. DB2UNIVERSAL_JDBC_DRIVER_PATH was NULL.
Answer: B
30. Which tool is commonly used for remotely administering servers or workstations?
A. PowerShell
B. Notepad
C. WinZip
D. Google Chrome
Answer: A
31. Which statement is true when an administrator issues the following command?
addnode localhost 8879 - includeapps
A. The running application server is stopped and the application is overwritten in the new
environment
B. The running application server continues to run and the application is overwritten in the new
environment
C. The running application server is stopped and the same version of the application starts in
the new environment.
D. The running application server continues to run and the same version of the application
starts in the new environment.
Answer: C
32. How would an administrator analyze Cross Component Trace output?
A. Use the logViewer command to review the information
B. Review the SystemErr.log files to review the information.
C. Use the Integrated Solutions Console to review the information.
D. Use the included Cross Component Trace servlet to review the information.
Answer: A
33. What does the term "CLI" stand for in computing?
A. Common Line Interface
B. Control Line Interface
C. Command Line Interface
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D. Coding Line Interface
Answer: C
34. When configuring a dynamic cluster, which option can improve bottleneck conditions in
deployed applications by enabling the placement controller to start more than one instance of
the dynamic cluster on a node?
A. Automatic mode
B. Vertical stacking
C. Number of server instances
D. Custom dynamic server template
Answer: B
35. Which tier interacts directly with the end-user in a multi-tier architecture?
A. Presentation tier
B. Data tier
C. Application tier
D. Communication tier
Answer: A
36. In a multi-tier architecture, what is the primary advantage of segregating components into
different tiers?
A. Reduced security
B. Simplified maintenance and updates
C. Increased complexity
D. Slower response time
Answer: B
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