Massage Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEX Dumps

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MBLEX
Exam Name: Massage & Bodywork Licensing
Examination
Full version: 251 Q&As
Full version of MBLEX Dumps
Share some MBLEX exam dumps below.
1. What does muscle tone relate to?
A. Muscle laxity
B. Muscle deformity
C. Muscle contraction
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D. Muscle atrophy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Muscle tone relates to a continuous muscle contraction that resists stretching or elongation
during a resting state. In other words, muscle tone describes a muscle that is unable to relax.
2. How many arches are in a normal human foot?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three arches in a normal human foot. These are the medial longitudinal arch, the
lateral longitudinal arch and the transverse arch.
3. A client is eating a snack while waiting for a massage in the waiting area and begins
coughing and panicking, pointing to her throat. You ask if you can help, but the client is unable
to speak.
What has most likely happened, and what should you do?
A. Food is lodged in his esophagus and you should give him water to drink.
B. Food is lodged in his esophagus and you should hit him sharply on the back to dislodge it.
C. Food is lodged in his esophagus and you should immediately apply an abdominal thrust
(Heimlich maneuver) to dislodge it.
D. Food is lodged in his trachea and you should give him water to drink.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Foreign objects, including food, can become lodged in the larynx or trachea (windpipe). These
can often be expelled by coughing. If the person can speak or make sounds, the airway is open
and there is no emergency. If the person cannot breathe or speak, there is an immediate threat
of death by asphyxiation and emergency measures are needed. The Heimlich maneuver is the
correct first emergency remedial action to take.
4. Which of the following valves is between the stomach and the small intestine?
A. Pyloric
B. Mitral
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C. Ileocecal
D. Eustachian
Answer: A
Explanation:
The valve between the stomach and the small intestine is the pyloric valve also known as the
pylorus or pyloric sphincter.
5. Which of the following massage techniques would be best suited for a healed fracture?
A. Trigger point
B. Petrissaqe
C. Tapotement
D. Deep tissue
Answer: B
Explanation:
The action of petrissage is best suited for moving stagnant blood and lymph away from an injury
site and replacing it with nutrient rich blood and fresh lymph.
6. What are the ideal times to perform an assessment of the client to understand problem areas
and the effectiveness of treatment?
A. After the treatment
B. During the treatment
C. All of the above
D. A and b only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before starting treatment with a client, a massage therapist must first understand what the
nature of the client’s complaint is, whether the condition is indicated or contraindicated or if a
referral is necessary. Once the therapy session is complete, an assessment is necessary to
determine the benefit of the treatment to the client.
7. When a client asks for personal information about their friend which happens to be a client,
the correct response should be _______________.
A. to discuss the details
B. to end the conversation
C. to tell them some but not all details
D. to find a way to turn the focus back on them
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Answer: D
Explanation:
When a client asks about the private matters of a common client/friend, they are trying to fill a
gap that a massage therapist, as a professional, should not fill. The massage therapist may
think the client making the request for information will respect the therapist for divulging
privileged information but they will ultimately grow to distrust the therapist’s adherence to client
confidentiality. The best answer is one that puts the focus back on them.
8. The radial nerve divides into a deep branch called the _________________ nerve?
A. musculocutaneous
B. anterior interosseous
C. palmar digital
D. posterior interosseous
Answer: D
Explanation:
The radial nerve divides into the superficial dorsal digital nerves and the deeper posterior
interosseous nerve, located at the posterior aspect of the forearm.
9. What do the levator scapulae, trapezius (upper fibers), biceps brachii, subscapularis and
soleus all have in common?
A. Act on the shoulder
B. Phasic muscles
C. Postural muscles
D. Fast twitch muscle
Answer: C
Explanation:
ABCDE
All the muscles listed in the question are examples of postural muscles. Postural muscles are
slow twitch and highly susceptible to hypertonicity in over-use and under-use scenarios.
10. What does a sulcus refer to?
A. A passage or canal
B. The meeting point where bones are joined together
C. A narrow groove
D. A knob like process
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A sulcus is a general term to describe a narrow groove. There are many places on the body
where a sulcus can be found. A few examples are the gluteal sulcus, radial sulcus or the
gingival sulcus between the gums and teeth.
11. A 43 year old female client presents with pain in the right hand with episodes of pins and
needles and occasional numbness. Upon inspection you notice a slight bluish discoloration of
her arm and sensitivities of her right anterior neck. She claims to be under a lot of stress at work
and she has been working overtime lately at a desk job typing 8-10 hours a day. What nerve
bundle is the root of the cause?
A. Sciatic
B. Brachial plexus
C. Radial
D. Peroneal nerve
Answer: B
Explanation:
The brachial plexus is the nerve bundle that serves the arm and most of the shoulder.
12. How many joints are part of the shoulder girdle?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three joints that are part of the shoulder girdle - the sternoclavicular joint, the
acromioclavicular joint and the glenohumeral joint.
13. Which of the following choices best describes the function of P, in the acronym S.O.A.P.?
A. Future visits
B. Evaluation
C. Summary of findings
D. Initial complaint
Answer: A
Explanation:
The P is for plan, which details what the next step is for the client. The plan could suggest
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stretch and exercise options, whether there should be additional care with a doctor or determine
future visits with the practitioner.
14. A postural assessment may be performed while a client is at rest in a supine position.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
A postural assessment can be performed while the client is standing to observe how they hold
themselves upright in relation to gravitational forces or while laying down in a supine/prone
position to determine any asymmetries.
15. Which of the following muscles would contribute to wrist abduction?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Extensor carpi radialis
C. Flexor diqitorum lonqus
D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wrist abduction is another term for radial deviation of the wrist. Of the muscles listed, the
extensor carpi radialis is the muscle responsible for wrist abduction, which is to laterally extend
the wrist away from the body while in correct anatomical position.
16. The medulla oblongata and pons are part of which section of the brain?
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephaion
D. Cerebrum
Answer: A
Explanation:
The brain stem which provides the sensory and motor innervations of the face and neck
consists of three parts: the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain.
17. What is another name for the alimentary canal?
A. Ear canal
B. Digestive tract
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C. Hepatic portal vein
D. Nasal cavity
Answer: B
Explanation:
The alimentary canal is the passageway from the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small
intestine, large intestine and ends at the anus. This canal is also the digestive tract.
18. Which muscle does the radial nerveinnervate?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Triceps
C. Flexor diqitorum lonqus
D. Pectorals major
Answer: B
Explanation:
The radial nerve innervates all muscles of the posterior arm and this includes the triceps
muscle.
19. Which of the following cells are important to blood clotting?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Phagocytes
D. Thrombocytes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Thrombocytes or platelets, are essential to blood clotting. Thrombocytes create platelet plugs by
releasing prothrombin at an injury site that bonds with calcium to form a clot.
20. Where are the lumbrical muscles located?
A. Lumbar region
B. Hands and feet
C. Pelvic floor
D. INeck
Answer: B
Explanation:
Despite their name, the lumbricals are located in the hands and feet and assist with movement
of the phalanges in both locations.
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21. During the objective portion of a massage intake, what information will the therapist gather
from a functional assessment?
A. Muscular deviations
B. Restricted and painful movement patterns
C. Tissue texture and temperature
D. Cause of soft tissue injuries
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of a functional assessment is to evaluate movement patterns and whether they are
restricted, painful, exaggerated or normal in function.
22. How many bones comprise the shoulder girdle?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two bones that make the shoulder girdle - the clavicle and the scapula.
23. ABCDE is used as a guideline to detect changes in the _______________.
A. eyes
B. muscles
C. skin
D. mouth
Answer: C
Explanation:
ABCDE refers to irregularities in skin. A - asymmetrical shape of skin B - border unevenness C -
color variations D - diameter E - evolution Any changes in the ABCDE category is cause for a
referral to a dermatologist.
24. A 27 year old male client enters a massage therapy office for a treatment holding his right
hand along the pinky and ring finger. He complains of numbness and weakness in the two
affected digits. He states the condition has been progressing over the last few weeks. He works
in IT for a database company and works normal hours and is not very stressed at work. He is a
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daily commuter cyclist and also enjoys playing disc golf.
What is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. His work in IT
B. Cycling
C. Disc golf
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The posture for bicycling requires the rider to rest on the palms while steering. Guyon’s canal
syndrome is also known as handlebar palsy.
25. As a self-employed sole proprietor or independent contractor, how often are you required to
file form 1040ES with the IRS?
A. Bi-monthly
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-yearly
D. Yearly
Answer: B
Explanation:
Form 1040ES is required for estimated tax liability especially if you expect to owe at least
$1,000.00 in tax for the year. You are required to make estimated tax payments to avoid federal
penalties. The practice of paying your quarterly estimated tax reduces the burden of paying a
large sum all at once.
26. Which muscle attaches to the zygomatic arch?
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Piriformis
D. Illiacus
Answer: B
Explanation:
The masseter is a dense muscle with a superficial head and a deep head both of which
originate from the zygomatic arch of the temporal bone.
27. Malpractice insurance is a requirement by Federal law.
A. TRUE
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B. FALSE
Answer: B
Explanation:
Malpractice insurance is not required by Federal law. Regulations on massage vary from state
to state. However, to adhere to sound business practices and for the protection of yourself and
your clients, malpractice insurance is considered a necessity within the massage community.
28. What is the medical term for the shoulder joint?
A. Facet joint
B. Acromioclavicular joint
C. Glenohumeral joint
D. Humeroclavicular
Answer: C
Explanation:
The shoulder joint is comprised of the glenoid fossa of the scapula and the head of the
humerus.
This juncture is called the glenohumeral joint.
29. Which of the following best describes a reflex arc?
A. Emotional response
B. Massage technique
C. Neural pathway
D. Gait assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
A reflex arc is a neural pathway that allows for the activation of spinal motor neurons to trigger
without involving the brain for a response.
30. Which of the four quad muscles is the largest in size?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Vastus intermedius
D. Vast medialis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vastus lateralis is the largest quadriceps muscle with its origin starting superiorly to the
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intertrochanteric line and inserting into the lateral border of the patella.
31. When a client’s skin is discolored with a bluish tint, this would be an indication of which
body system dysfunction?
A. Skin
B. Nervous
C. Muscular
D. Cardiovascular
Answer: D
Explanation:
The bluish tint in a client’s skin is an indication of a cardiovascular issue and is due to a lack of
oxygen within the blood also known as hypoxia.
32. Quick, shallow breaths are an indication of forced inhalation.
Which of the following muscles would be hypertonic from an improper breathing pattern?
A. Rhomboids
B. Scalenes
C. Abdominals
D. Diaphragm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scalene muscles are typically reposed during normal respiration and only come into action
during heavy exertion or forced inhalation. However, in a faulty breathing pattern, the scalene
(along with the upper trapezius, levator scapulae, SCMS and pec minor) become primary
breathing muscles and are active with each inspiration. This additional stress leads to the
development of trigger points within these muscles. Assisting the client to correct their breathing
pattern is as essential to rehabilitation as is releasing the hypertonic muscles.
33. Which of the following procedures is an exfoliating treatment?
A. Salt glow
B. Aromatherapy bath
C. Herbal wrap
D. Steam bath
Answer: A
Explanation:
A salt glow is a treatment in which the practitioner applies sea salts to the body in a rubbing
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fashion to exfoliate the skin.
34. The prefix nephro- refers to:
A. Nerve
B. Infant
C. Kidney
D. Brain
Answer: C
Explanation:
Nephro and nephr both refer to the kidneys. An example is nephritis, which is an inflammation of
the kidneys.
35. A client is complaining of tension headaches focused along the temporal region.
What should the massage therapist instruct the client to do to help locate and palpate the
temporalis muscle?
A. Client clench and relax their jaw
B. Client open mouth and relax their jaw
C. Pinch closed and open eyes
D. Rotate head from side to side
Answer: A
Explanation:
The temporalis muscle has one action and that is to clench the jaw during mastication. The best
way to locate and palpate the temporalis muscle is to instruct the client to clench and release
their jaw while the therapist feels for the origin and insertion of muscle fibers along the temporal
bone.
36. What is another term for kinesthesia?
A. Proprioception
B. Pain
C. Mechanoreceptors
D. Tetanus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Kinesthesia is another term for proprioception, or the ability of a person to perceive their own
movement.
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37. How many lobes are in each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
The cerebral cortex is divided into two halves or hemispheres. Each hemisphere consists of four
lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe and temporal lobe. The lobes relate not to
brain function but rather to the bones that underlie the cerebral cortex. The borders of these
lobes are dictated by sutures in the skull with the exception between the frontal and parietal
lobes which follow a deep fold in the brain called the central sulcus and this isjust behind the
frontal and parietal sutures.
38. What is the control center of a cell?
Available Choices (select all choices that are correct)
A. Cytoplasm
B. Mitochondrion
C. Nucleolus
D. Ribosome
Answer: C
 
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