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iQMS Awareness Quiz for IT IS IT IS associates Inglés 11410
Integrated Quality Management System for IT IS 
( iQMS for IT IS ) - WBT IT IS associates Inglés 26800 
================================== 
31) Which of the following is NOT true about PMR
A. It identifies risk/challenges that may impede project success
B. It provides suggestion/action items to help the project
C. It provides a platform for project manager to get an external perspective on project
D. It's objective is to find fault in the project
32) If the past record of a product of a customer is found satisfactory, customer supplied 
product could be used without any testing
A. False
B. Not relevant
C. True
1) A network user calls the Service Desk to report that he experienced problems saving files 
on a number of occasions. He always gets the message that there is not enough disk memory 
available. He suggests that he has reported this problem to the Service Desk a number of times 
before and his previous calls have all been recorded in the incident tracking tool. The Service Desk 
handles this call by giving the user more disk memory on a server temporarily. How should the 
Service Desk record this call?
A. As an Incident
B. As a Problem
C. As a Know Error
D. As a Request for Change
2) What is the best way to prevent scope creep?
A. Alert the sponsor that you will not be taking any change requests after the project starts.
B. Make sure the requirements are thoroughly defined before the project begins.
C. Label requirements that are not really necessary as “Nice To Have”.
D. Put a proviso in the charter that no additions to the project will be allowed once it is under 
way.
3) Casual Analysis is mandatory if overall CSS value
A. Less than 75%
B. Less than 80%
C. Less than 85%
D. Less than 60%
4) Frequency of conducting Project Management Review (PMR) for large project is
A. Once in a Quarter
B. Once in 6 Months
C. Once in 9 Months
D. Once in a year
5) Operational Process of a Project Plan primarily depends on 
A. Type of project
B. Complexity of a project
C. Size of a project
D. All the options
6) CSS can be collected from the customer either in
A. Format approved by OU DAM
B. TCS format/Client provided format
C. TCS Format
D. Format approved by IOU Head
7) If customer does not give feedback in the CSS form despite repeated follow-ups, the GL/PL
will use alternative methods of obtaining customer feedback like meeting with customer, 
informal/formal discussions.
A. False
B. True
C. Not relevant
8) Causal analysis of customer feedback should be done if
A. Customer has rated at least one attribute as “Neither Agree nor Disagree”, “Disagree” or 
“Strongly Disagree”
B. Customer has rated “Strongly Disagree” for at least any one of the attributes
C. Customer has rated “Strongly disagree” or “Disagree” for at least any one of the attributes
D. None of the options
10) On the five point rating scale, the neutral value (“neither agree nor disagree”) is treated like 
a dissatisfier while evaluating the customer satisfaction index.
A. Not relevant
B. True
C. False
11) What process helps the team member to understand scope, activities, and environment 
procedures to be followed in the project?
A. Induction Process
B. Handover – Take over process
C. Project Startup Process
D. Project Management Review Process
12) What is the SLA for audit reporting? 
A. 14 working days after completing the audit
B. 14 calendar days after completing the audit
C. 10 calendar days after completing the audit
D. 10 working days after completing the audit
13) “PIR to changes” – who is responsible for this measure (Post Implementation Review)
A. Problem Manager
B. Availability Manager
C. Incident Manager
D. Change Manager
14) Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?
A. A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been 
found
B. A Known Error be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C. Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all 
actions is retained in case of a recurrence
D. As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
15) The likelihood of occurrence and impact of Risk A is 0.3 and 0.6 respectively. The 
likelihood of occurrence and impact of Risk B is 0.2 and 0.8. Which risk has greater exposure?
A. Risk A
B. Risk B
C. Both are same
D. None of the options
16) What are the two view`s of Quality?
A. Producer`s view & Customer`s view
B. Client`s view & Developer`s view
C. Product`s view & Process View
D. User`s view & Producer’s view
17) It is ideal to inform customer about TCS CSS process
A. At the end of first phase of the project
B. When mail is received from IOU DAG
C. At the project start up
D. At the time when CSS is to be launched
19) What is the range of `PL Self Rating` provided in the PMR report?
A. 1-5 rating
B. 5-10 rating
C. 0-5 rating
D. 1-10 rating
20) CSS feedback is sought on
A. Specific attributes of Project leader`s individual performance
B. Specific attributes of performance of individual team members
C. Quality of service/delivery
D. All the options
21) PMRs are conducted
A. To rate project as RED, AMBER, GREEN
B. To evaluate the progress of project & suggest future course of action
C. To assess project manager
D. To ensure compliance whit processes
22) If a large project is a pilot project (such as proof of concept) the procedure of Sales to 
delivery handover is not mandatory.
A. True
B. False
C. Not relevant
D. Partly true
23) Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) 
are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are 
stored and protected
24) You are executing a project without having a valid contract/SOW, you should apply for
A. Work ahead
B. Concession
C. None of the above
25) Project management risks are reported in
A. Risk management Report template
B. Project Progress Report template
C. Both the options
26) CMDB audit report should contain the findings on CMDB like
A. Unauthorized CIs
B. CI variances
C. Missing CIs
D. All of the above
27) What is the default resolution date for a Major NCR?
A. RFD + 5
B. RFD + 30
C. RFD + 10
D. Report finalization date (RFd. + 1
28) CSS calendar is setup by GL/BRM to indicate:
A. A date after which CSS feedback should not be administered.
B. A date after which project is considered as a CSS defaulter.
C. A tentative date within a given half year in which CSS should be administered.
D. All the options.
29) The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
B. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
C. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
D. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
30) FCR stands for
A. Final Call Resolution
B. Fast Call Resolution
C. First Call Resolution
================================== 
Question:
1.- Quality Goals for process and product defined at the Project Level are documented in the
 A. Project Plan
 B. Quality Plan
 C. Project Metrics Plan
 D. None of the options
2.- FCR is calculated using which formulae
 A. (No. of tickets closed by SD/ Total Tickets) * 100
 B. (No. of tickets closed by SD/ Total Tickets)
 C. (No. of tickets closed on 1st call by SD/ Total Tickets)
 D. (No. of tickets closed on 1st call by SD/ Total Tickets) * 100
3.- ‘E’ in the ETVX is meant to define
A. Entry Criteria of a phase
 B. Exit criteria of a phase
 C. Entry Correlations with the earlier phase
 D. Entry Points in a phase
4.- Subsequent versions of project plan ( not thefirst version ) can also be authorized by
A. DAM
 B. GL
 C. Reviewer nominated by a pool of reviewer identified by ISU
 D. All the options
5.- Where can one find the latest version and release date of all the documents in the project.
 A. Document distribution List
 B. Test data
 C. Document Master List(DML)
6.- IPMS is automation of
 A. Project Delivery procedures in IQMS
 B. Customer management procedures in IQMS
 C. Project management procedures in IQMS
 D. None of the options
7.- Who is primarily responsible for approving the first version of Project plan?
A. ISU-DAM/GL/Sub-IOU Head
 B. ISU-DAM/GL
 C. DAM
 D. GL
 E. Sub IOU Head
8.- Project management risks are reported in
A. Risk management Report template
 B. Project Progress Report template
 C. Both the options
9.- Role profiles, skills and training needs for all associates in the project are captured in
A. SPEED
 B. MIGHTY
 C. KNOWMAX
 D. iCALMS
11.- Cost of Quality component includes
A. Preventive effort, Appraisal effort, Internal failure effort, External failure effort
 B. Development effort, Preventive effort, Appraisal effort, Internal failure effort, 
External failure effort,
 C. Preventive effort, Appraisal effort, Internal failure effort, External failure effort, 
effort spend on documentation
 D. None of the options
12.- Cost of Quality should be monitored
A. At the end of the project
 B. By maintenance projects
 C. Throughout the project lifecycle
 D. By Development projects
13.- You are executing a project without having a valid contract/SOW, you should apply for
A. Work ahead
 B. Concession
 C. None of the above
14.- In DAR guidelines, DAR stands for
A. Design Analysis & Review
 B. Decision Analysis & Resolution
 C. Decision Analysis Response Methodology
 D. None of the options
15.- According to IQMS guidelines, medium-complexity project is a project when it’s project 
revenue is
A. < 1 million US $
 B. Between 1-3 Million US $
 C. Between 2-5 million US $
 D. None of the options
16.- Data used in SPC are variable and attribute data. Attribute data is
 A. Continuous data
 B. Data that follows normal distribution
 C. Discrete data
 D. None of the options
18.- For which of the following activities, among others, is Incident Management responsible?
A. Authorizing changes to the infrastructure
 B. Restoring the service to the customer as quickly as possible
 C. Identifying the problems behind the incidents
 D. Tracing the underlying causes of incidents
19.- Frequency of conducting Project Management Review (PMR) for large project is
A. Once in a Quarter
 B. Once in 6 Months
 C. Once in 9 Months
 D. Once in a year
20.- For documenting the project plan, it is useful to follow the template provided in
A. Project Planning Guideline
 B. Sections in Project Management Procedures
 C. Appendices in Project Management Procedures
 D. None of the options
21.- Tool to be used for storing and finding reusable assets in TCS is called 
A. Knowmax – Mighty
 B. IPMS
 C. IdeaMax
 D. All the options
22.- Whose responsibility is it to coordinate and organize PMR
A. DAM
 B. PEG
 C. Group Leader
 D. ACG
23.- Internal projects need not receive feedback from its customers
A. Sometimes false
 B. Not relevant
 C. False
 D. True
24.- ISO 20000 is about
 A. IT Service Management,
 B. Information Security Management ,
 C. Software development Requirement
 D. All of the above
25.- The group that authorizes Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is 
called the:
A. Urgent Change Authority (UCa.
 B. Urgent Change Board (UCb.
 C. Technical Management
 D. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAb.
26.- Customer complaint, if classified as Major, is expected to be resolved within:
 A. 1 day
 B. 1 week
 C. 3 days
 D. 5 days
27.- ‘T’ in the ETVX is meant to define
A. Time wise check points in a phase
 B. Tasks in a phase
 C. Target deliverables in a phase
 D. None of the options
28.- iQMS framework consists of
A. Policy, Process, Procedure, Guidelines & Standards
 B. Policy, Procedure, Guidelines, Templates, Checklists
 C. Purpose, Procedure, Process, Guidelines, Standards,
 D. Policy, Procedure, Guidelines, Standards, Templates
30.- A stable process is a process when the data points fall
A. Within the lower and upper control limits
 B. Within the Lower and upper specification limit
 C. Outside the lower and upper control limit
 D. None of the options
================================== 
QUIZ IQMS
 
1. Abbreviation CSS in Context of customer management stands for
A. Customer Satisfaction Solution
B. Customer Satisfaction Survey
C. Customer Satisfaction System
D. Client Satisfaction Solution
 
2. Onsite component of a Project can follow different IQMS processes
A. True
B. False
C. Not relevant
 
3. In TCS, which tool enables deployment of IQMS (chose the closest option)
A. Knowmax
B. IPMS
C. Ultimatix
D. TQAS (audit and compliance.
 
4. Role Profiles, Skills and training needs for all associates in the Project are captured in
A. Knowmax
B. iCalms
C. Mighty
D. IQMSWiki
 
6. Umbrella-Child relationship is created in one of the following tool
A. EQP
B. IPMS
C. PA Module
D. TQAS
 
7. Purpose of having Umbrella and child Project is primarily to
A. Reduce the project management effort
B. Manage customer effectively
C. Both the options
D. None of the options
9. ´T´ in the ETVX is meant to define
A. Time wise check points in a phase
B. Tasks in a phase
C. Target deliverables in a phase
D. None of the options
 
10. Complete this sentence: In order to complete successful planning the Project manager must 
know __________?
A. The requirements the project must satisfy
B. How much the project budget is
C. The mission statement of the organization
D. The cause of the problem the project is to solve
 
11. PL should submit the Project plan to customer for acceptance
A. As part of normal project management function
B. Only if it is specified in the contract
C. In exceptional circumstances
D. Even when it is not specified in the contract
 
13. In TCS, who is responsible for Process Improvement?
A. Core PEG
B. PEG team at the HO
C. Every associate
D. DAM
 
14. In TCS, PEEP acronym stands for
A. Proactive project Effectivenees Program
B. People Effectiveness & Engagement Program
C. Proactive Employee Engagement Program
D. Proactive Estimation Effectiveness Program
 
15. Who is primarily responsible for reviewing the first version of Project plan?
A. DAM/GL
B. DAM/GL/Reviewer appointed
C. DAM
D. GL alone
E. Reviewer nominated by a pool of reviewer identified by ISU
 
16. In case performance rating or importance rating (any one of these two) is not provided on 
any given attribute, the same is not used during computation of overall CSI at the project level.
A. Not relevant
B. True
C. False
 
17. Who all can invite the customer representative for participating in the CSS for a given 
Project using the digitized mechanism (in IPMS)?
A. Sub IOU Head/GL
B. PL/GL
C. PL alone
D. PL/GL/BRM
 
18. Document Master List for a Project is
A. All client supplied documents
B. A List of all latest reviewed, approved and released documents
C. A list of all documents in the Project
 
19. Only select customer complaints of high severity should be analyzed using causal analysis 
by DAG.
A. True
B. Not relevant
C. False
 
20. What are the areas under which we have goals in BSC?
A. Customer, Financial, Defects, People metrics
B. Process improvement, Financial, Customer, Quality
C. Financial, Customer, Internal process, Learning
D. Financial, Effort,Schedule,Competencies
 
21. What is the RAG status of Project after the PMR if any action item is raised by the 
reviewer?
A. Red or Amber
B. Amber only
C. Amber or Grey
D. Red or Grey
 
22. The Action items of PMR can be assigned to
A. PL/GL/AM/BRM
B. PL/GL/AM
C. PL/GL
D. PL/GL/BRM
 
23. Capacity Incident Index is a measure to
A. Estimate capacity with the objective of decreasing capacity.
B. Estimate capacity with theobjective of increasing capacity.
C. Estimate availability with the objective of increasing capacity.
D. None
 
24. Of the following reasons to change a project´s deliverables, which is a result of Lack of 
planning?
A. A request from management to finish the project earlier than the set date
B. A request from the project team to delay the project by a week
C. A discover that the technology is not compatible with the workstation´OS
D. A request from the client for additional features within an application
 
25. For documenting the Project plan, it is useful to follow the template provided in
A. Project Planning Guideline
B. Sections in Project Management Procedures
C. Appendices in Project Management Procedures
D. None of the options
 
26. Which of the following is not an element of Availability management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Maintainability
D. Reliability
 
28. Through which tool can % rework effort be captured
A. TQAS
B. IPMS
C. UMP
D. Knowmax
 
================================== 
Question:
The reviewer for a PMR is assigned in one of the following tool
A. IPMS
B. CRM
C. EQP
D. TQAS
Question 3 of 30
Question:
Identifying Phases in a project plan can best be done by perusing the sections in one of this 
document
A. Project Planning Guideline
B. Project Management Procedures
C. Process Handbooks
D. All the options
Question 4 of 30
Question:
The likelihood of occurrence and impact of Risk A is 0.3 and 0.6 respectively. The likelihood of 
occurrence and impact of Risk B is 0.2 and 0.8. Which risk has greater exposure?
A. Risk A
B. Risk B
C. Both are same
D. None of the options
Question 5 of 30
Question:
Which one of the following project-type is not a candidate for audit?
A. Umbrella project
 B. Stand-alone project
C. Child Project
 D. None of the options
Question 6 of 30
Question:
When a client supplies a software license for using a product, approval from Legal cell of TCS is 
required only when (choose most appropriate answer)
A. Software is used in the onshore site
 B. Software is used on the offshore ODC site
 C. Software is used on the offshore site
 D. All the options
Question 7 of 30
Question:
A Process is said to be stable and capable when
A. All the data points are within the Control Limits & Specification limits
B. All the data points are within the Specification Limits
C. All the data points are within the Tolerance limits
D. All the data points are within the Control limits
Question 8 of 30
Question:
Role profiles, skills and training needs for all associates in the project are captured in
A. SPEED
B. KNOWMAX
 C. MIGHTY
 D. iCALMS
Question 9 of 30
Question:
For documenting the project plan, it is useful to follow the template provided in
A. Project Planning Guideline
 B. Sections in Project Management Procedures
 C. Appendices in Project Management Procedures
 D. None of the options
Question 10 of 30
Question:
Frequency of conducting Project Management Review (PMR) for large project is
A. Once in a year
 B. Once in 9 Months
 C. Once in a Quarter
 D. Once in 6 Months
Question 12 of 30
Question:
Umbrella-Child relationship is created in one of the following tool
A. IPMS
 B. EQP
 C. PA Module
 D. TQAS
Question 13 of 30
Question:
OU level of consolidation happens as and when the complaints are received
A. False
 B. True
 C. Not relevant
Question 14 of 30
Question:
Causal analysis of the CSS feedback is typically done by
A. Project team
 B. DAG team of ISU
 C. PL
D. GL
Question 15 of 30
Question:
A program must be altered to correct a fault. Which function formally approves this alteration?
A. Software Maintenance
 B. Release Management
 C. Change Management
 D. Problem Management
Question 17 of 30
Question:
ISO 27001 is about
A. IT Service Management,
 B. Software development Requirement
 C. Information Security Management ,
 D. None of the above
Question 18 of 30
Question:
On the five point rating scale, the neutral value (‘neither agree nor disagree’) is treated like a 
dissatisfier while evaluating the customer satisfaction index.
A. Not relevant
 B. True
 C. False
Question 19 of 30
Question:
What would most likely decide the milestones in a project?
A. When you don’t have many phases, but each phase is very complicated
 B. When you have a lot of phases and activities, regardless of their complexity
 C. When the project is very small
 D. In all cases
Question 21 of 30
Question:
CSS calendar is setup by GL/ BRM to indicate:
A. A date after which CSS feedback should not be administered.
 B. A date after which project is considered as a CSS defaulter.
 C. A tentative date within a given half year in which CSS should be administered.
 D. All the options.
Question 22 of 30
Question:
‘E’ in the ETVX is meant to define
A. Exit criteria of a phase
 B. Entry Points in a phase
 C. Entry Criteria of a phase
 D. Entry Correlations with the earlier phase
Question 23 of 30
Question:
Question 27 of 30
Question:
It is mandatory to maintain the training records like attendance sheet and participants feedback for 
any training conducted for client
 B. False
 A. True
Question 28 of 30
Question:
Contract review is done using
A. Client specified checklist
B. PF3010 from IQMS
 C. Project level review checklist
Question 29 of 30
Question:
PMRs are conducted
A. To rate project as RED, AMBER, GREEN
 B. To assess project manager
 C. To ensure compliance with processes
 D. To evaluate the progress of project & suggest future course of action
Question 30 of 30
Question:
PMR issues of your Project can be seen in
A. Q-portal
 B. IPMS
 C. TQAS
 D. None of the options
================================== 
Question:
The procedure to be followed to review a project plan is
A. Review Reporting and Defect Logging procedure
 B. Review Reporting Procedure
 C. Review Reporting Check list
 D. Any of the options
Question 2 of 30
Question:
Causal analysis of customer feedback should be done if
A. Customer has rated at least one attribute as ‘Neither Agree nor Disagree’, ‘Disagree’
or ‘Strongly Disagree’
 B. Customer has rated ‘Strongly Disagree’ for at least any one of the attributes
 C. Customer has rated ‘Strongly disagree’ or ‘Disagree’ for at least any one of the 
attribute
 D. None of the options
Question 3 of 30
Question:
Complete this sentence: In order to complete successful planning the project manager must know 
______________________?
A. The requirements the project must satisfy
 B. The mission statement of the organization
 C. The cause of the problem the project is to solve
 D. How much the project budget is
Question 4 of 30
Question:
IPMS is automation of 
A. Project Delivery procedures in IQMS 
B. Customer management procedures in IQMS 
C. Project management procedures in IQMS 
D. None of the options
Question 8 of 30
Question:
Which one of the following project-type is not a candidate for audit? 
A. Umbrella project 
B. Stand-alone project 
C. Child Project 
D. None of the options
Question 11 of 30
Question:
Which activities may be discussed by the reviewer in a PMR? 
A. Project activities and Process Improvement Activities 
B. Project activites, Support Group Activities and Process improvement activities. 
C. Project activities and Support Groups Activities 
D. Project activities
Question 14 of 30
Question:
Audit for a project can be done by 
A. GL of the Project 
B. Independent and trained Internal Auditor
C. PL of the Project 
D. PL of any other project
Question 17 of 30
Question:
The two major components of a risk are: 
A. Quality and time 
B. Cost and impact 
C. Time and cost 
D. Probability of occurrence and impact
Question 19 of 30
Question:
CSS is not applicable for pure T&M project 
A. False 
B. Not relevant 
C. True
Question 20 of 30
Question:
CSS is typically administered 
A. At the end of 4 months 
B. At the end of 6 months 
C. At the end of project 
D. At the end of project or at the end of 4 months 
E. At the end of project or at the end of 6 months
Question 22 of 30
Question:
Any changesin the Project management procedures are done through 
A. Branch Tailoring Guidelines 
B. Project plan 
C. IOU tailoring guidelines 
D. All the options
Question 24 of 30
Question:
Which of the following represents the four stages of the Deming cycle in the correct order. 
A. Check, Plan, Do, Act 
B. Act, Plan, Do, Check 
C. Act, Check, Do, Plan 
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act
Question 27 of 30
Question:
Document Master List for a Project is 
A. A List of all latest reviewed, approved and released documents 
B. A List of all documents in the Project 
C. All client supplied documents
Question 30 of 30
Question:
Data used in SPC are variable and attribute data. Attribute data is 
A. Continuous data 
B. Data that follows normal distribution 
C. Discrete data 
D. None of the options
================================== 
Question 2.
While preparing a Project plan, PL need not understand the Project classification guideline.
a. False
b. True
c. Not relevant
Question 3.
ISO 14001 is about
a. Environmental Management System
b. IT Service Management
c. Information Security Management
d. Software development Requirement
Question 4.
Document Master List for a Project is
a. All client supplied documents
b. A List of all documents in the Project
c. A List of all latest reviewed, approved and released documents
Question 7. 
XmR control charts in SPC are used mainly for analysis of
a. Attribute data
b. Variable data
c. Both the options
d. None of the options
Question 9.
A capable process is a process when 3 sigma points of a process fall
a. Outside the Lower an Upper specification limit
b. Within the Lower and Upper specification limit
c. Outside the Lower and Upper control limit 
d. None of the options
Question 12. 
IPMS is automation of
a. Project Delivery procedure in IQMS
b. Costumer management procedures in IQMS
c. Project management procedure in IQMS
d. None of the options
Question 14. 
Cost of Quality Includes
a. Preventive effort
b. Apraissal effort
c. Internal failure effort
d. External failure effort
e. a, b & d
f. a, b, c, d
Question 17.
Where can one find the latest version and release date of all the documents in the Project.
a. Test data
b. Document Master List (DML)
c. Document distribution List
Question 18.
CSS can be collected from the costumer either in
a. Format approved by IOU Head
b. TCS Format
c. Format approved by OU DAM
d. TCS format/Client provide format
Question 19.
Identifying Phases in a Project plan can best be done by perusing the sections in one of this 
document
a. Project Planning Guideline
b. Project Management Procedures
c. Process Handbooks
d. All the options
Question 21.
OHSAS 18001 is about the processes of
a. Environmental Management System
b. Software development Requirement
c. Information Security Management
d. Occupational Health & Safety
Question 25.
When there is a change in the PL or any Key role in the project, the important procedure to be 
followed is
a. Handover / Takeove (HOTO)
b. Workahead
c. Team Building
Question 26.
Wich one of the following is not one of the TCS values
a. Integrity
b. Respect for individual
c. Excellence
d. Market Leader
Question 29.
Role profiles, skills and training needs for all associates in the Project are captured in
a. iCALMS
b. SPEED
c. KNOWMAX
d. MIGHTY
================================== 
4. Internal projects need not receive feedback from its customers
a. False
b. Not relevant
c. True
d. Sometimes false
7. IPMS is automation of
a. Project Delivery procedures in IQMS
b. Customer management procedures in IQMS
c. Project management procedures in IQMS
d. None of the options
8. If you are executing a project without having a valid contract/ SOW, you should request for:
a. Work ahead to continue with the project
b. Concession to continue with the project
c. Permission of IOU Head to continue with the project
d. None of the options
13. For a person who is an expert in a given skill, the proficiency level in icalms would be
a. E2
b. E1
c. E4
d. E3
14. While preparing a project plan, PL need not understand the Project classification guideline
a. Not relevant
b. False
c. True
18. Where more than one CSS surveys have been resolved for a given project during a given 
half year calendar
a. Average value for CSS is taken as Project CSI
b. Best value amongst the feedbacks received is taken as project CSI
c. Lowest value from the available feedbacks is taken as project CSI
d. None of the options(More than 1 CSS feedback forms are not permitted in a given half 
year)
22. All the staff of a Service Desk should be co–located
a. False
b. True
24. CSS is typically administered
a. At the end of project or at the end of 6 months
b. At the end of project
c. At the end of 6 months
d. At the end of 4 months
e. At the end of project or at the end of 4 months
28. What is the best way to prevent scope creep?
a. Make sure the requirements are thoroughly defined before the project begins
b. Label requirements that are not really necessary as “Nice to Have”
c. Put a proviso in the charter that no additions, to the project will be allowed once its under 
way
d. Alert the sponsor that you will not be taking any change requests after the project starts
================================== 
IS Questions
1. Customer complaint, if classified a Major, is expected to be resolved within:
a. 1 week
b. 1 day
c. 5 days
d. 3 days
2. Appropriateness of a corrective action for a customer complaint is resolved by GL through
a. Customer interaction
b. Formal letter of customer
c. Both the options
3. In TCS, PEEP acronym stands for
a. Proactive Estimation Effectiveness Program
b. Proactive Employee Engagement Program
c. People Effectiveness & Engagement Program
d. Proactive Project Effectiveness Program
4. The Quality Models integrated in iQMS are based on
a. ISO 14000, ISO 20000, ISO 27000, OHSAS 18001
b. ISO 14001, ISO 20000, ISO 27001, OHSAS 18001
c. ISO 9000, ISO 20000, ISO 27001, OHSAS 18001
d. ISO 14001, ISO 20001, ISO 27000, OHSAS 18001 
5. DAR is used 
a. To take any decision in a project
b. To take critical decisions in a project
c. To take group decisions in a project
d. None of the options
6. All products supplied by the customer is recorded in
a. CSP Register
b. CSR Register
c. CPR Register
d. None of the options
7. The two major components of a risk are:
a. Probability of occurrence and impact
b. Time and cost
c. Cost and impact
d. Quality and time
 
8. Which one of the following is not one of the TCS values
a. Market Leader
b. Excellence
c. Respect for individual
d. Integrity 
9. The procedure to be followed to review a project plan is:
a. Review Reporting and Defect Logging procedure
b. Review Reporting Procedure
c. Review Reporting Check list
d. Any of the options
10. What process helps the team member to understand scope, activities, and environment 
procedures, to be followed in the project?
a. Project Startup Process
b. Induction Process
c. Handover/Takeover 
d. Project Management Review Process
11. Audit for a project can be done by
a. PL of the Project
b. GL of the Project
c. Independent and trained Internal Auditor
d. PL of any other project 
12. SIP tracking is done using
a. iQMS WIKI
b. IMPACT
c. KNOWMAX
13. The reviewer for a PMR is assigned in one of the following tool
a. IPMS
b. CRM
c. EQP
d. TQAS 
14. Organization Structure of TCS is placed in
a. Process Handbooks
b. Project Management Procedure
c. Quality Manual
d. Policy Manual 
 
15. CSS feedback is sought on
a. Specific attributes of Project leader’s individual performance
b. Specific attributes of performance of individual team members
c. Quality of service / delivery 
d. All the options
16. Who can invite the customer representative for participating in the CSS for a given project 
using the digitized mechanism (in IPMS)?
a. Sub IOU Head/GL
b. PL alone
c. PL/GL
d. PL/GL/BRM
17. What is the best way to prevent scope creep?
a. Alert the sponsor that you will not be taking any change requests after the project starts.
b. Make sure therequirements are thoroughly defined before the project begins.
c. Put a proviso in the charter that no additions to the project will be allowed once it’s under 
way.
d. Label requirements that are not really necessary as “Nice to Have”. 
18. “E” in the ETVX is meant to define
a. Entry Points in a phase
b. Entry Criteria of a phase
c. Entry Correlations with the earlier phase
d. Exit criteria of a phase
22. What are the two view’s of Quality?
a. Client’s view & Developer’s view
b. Product’s view & Process view
c. Producer’s view & customer’s view
d. User’s view & Producer’s view
23. Which of the following element needs to be common among child projects in order to fall 
under one umbrella project?
a. Billing Type
b. Group Client
c. Project Type
d. P&L OU 
25. CSS calendar is setup by GL/BRM to indicate:
a. A date after which CSS feedback should not be administered.
b. A date after which project is considered as a CSS defaulter.
c. A tentative date within a given half year in which CSS should be administered. 
d. All the options
26. Causal Analysis o f customer/feedback should be done if
a. Customer has rated at least one attribute as ‘Neither Agree nor Disagree’, ’Disagree’ or 
‘Strongly Disagree’.
b. Customer has rated ‘Strongly Disagree’ for at least any one of the attributes
c. Customer has rated ‘Strongly disagree’ or ‘Disagree’ for at least any one of the attribute
d. None of the options
29. PMR issues of your Project can be seen in
a. Q-portal
b. IPMS
c. TQAS
d. None of the options 
30. A process is said to be stable and capable when
a. All the data points are within the Control Limits & Specification Limits
b. All the data points are within the Tolerance limits
c. All the data points are within the Control limits
d. All the data points are within the Specification Limits.
================================== 
Question:
Frequency of Customer Satisfaction Survey (CSS) is
A. Monthly
 B. Quarterly
 C. Annual
 D. Half yearly
Question:
While working in a project, Project Risk management is done by
A. PL
 B. Jointly by PL and team members
 C. PL/GL
 D. PL/IOU-ISM
Question:
Data used in SPC are variable and attribute data. Variable data is
A. Continuous data
 B. Discrete data
 C. Data that follows poisson distribution
 D. None of the options
================================== 
Question 1
ISO 140001 is about
A. Environmental Management System
B. Software development Requirement
C. Information Security Management
D. IT Service Management
Question 16
Who is responsible for process improvement
A. Admin
B. Entire Organization
C. BRM
D. DAG
E. PL/GL
Question 28
The organization level target for CSI is minimum 85%
A. True
B. False
RACI is an acronym of:
A. Role, action, capture, inform
B. Responsibility, accountability, information, consulted
C. Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed
================================== 
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