VISION IAS PT 2023 CSAT TEST-03[E]UPSC_SUCCESS_TIME1

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CSAT 
 
APTITUDE TEST–Test (4019) – 2023
 
 
www.visionias.in
 IASVISION 
TEST-3
Maths,DI and rc
Number System.Lcm/hec
Time and Wark
Set Theory
DI-Pie Chart
2023
 
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VISION IAS 
www.visionias.in 
 
 
 
TEST BOOKLET 
 
CSAT APTITUDE TEST (4019) – 2023 
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS 
 
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET 
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A 
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 
 
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN 
THE ANSWER SHEET. 
 
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in 
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on 
the Test Booklet. 
 
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four 
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel 
that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider most appropriate. In any 
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 
 
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers 
sheet. 
 
6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct 
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response one-third of the allotted Marks will 
be deducted. 
 
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to 
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per the instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 
 
8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you 
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 
 
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 
 
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 
C 
Test-3
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1. If mn = 625, then what must be the value of
(m + 1)(n/2 )+ 1, where m and n are whole numbers
and 0 ≤ m ≤ 20 ?
(a) 512
(b) 216
(c) 289
(d) 324
2. Ram and Sunita have some money. Product of
the amounts of their money is Rs. 308700, and
it’s known that Sunita has less money than Ram.
If HCF of their money is Rs. 105, then how
much money does Ram has?
(a) Rs. 420
(b) Rs. 735
(c) Rs. 815
(d) Rs. 675
3. Out of 160 sports persons in a club, 10% persons
can play hockey, cricket and basketball. There
are 30 persons who can play only two sports. 40
persons can play only hockey. What is the total
number of persons who can play cricket only or
basketball only?
(a) 92
(b) 86
(c) 74
(d) 68
4. Shubhi, Krishna and Anurag can do a work in 60
days, 30 days and 20 days respectively. Anurag
works alone but on every fourth day he took help
of Shubhi and Krishna. In how many days will
the whole work be done?
(a) 8 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 15 days
5. The following pie-chart indicates the admission
charges in a school. Study the pie chart carefully 
and answer the question that follows. 
 Admission charges in a school 
If expense on dress is Rs. 1200 less than the 
expense on building fee, then what must be the 
expense on tuition fee? 
(a) Rs. 7600
(b) Rs. 4100
(c) Rs. 2400
(d) Rs. 1800
6. Pappu has a tank of unknown capacity. When
there is 120 litre of water in the tank, it is 20% 
full. If there is 280 litre water in the tank, then 
what fraction of the tank must be full? 
(a) 1/5
(b) 7/15
(c) 2/7
(d) 8/17
Admissi
on fee, 
146o
Tuition 
fee, 76o
Tour, 
60o
Building 
fee, 58o
Dress,
20o
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7. Consider the following statements.
S1. Sum of the first natural number and the first
whole number is always zero.
S2. If √3 is an irrational number, then √3 + 2
will be a rational number.
S3. Product of √3 + 1 with the sum of the first 
natural number and the first whole number will 
be zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are wrong? 
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 
Read the following two passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
You are what you eat, and similarly, you are what you 
think, and you are totally what you want to believe. Such 
is the power our minds have, on who we are, what we do, 
how we behave, what choices we make, how we conduct 
ourselves, what mood we choose to be in and be 
consumed by, and how we allow others to see us, accept 
us, define us, and celebrate or shun us. 
8. According to the author, which of the following
options best explains who you are?
(a) A person’s willpower.
(b) What we believe.
(c) How we behave.
(d) How a person conducts himself.
Passage – 2 
A good foreign policy must work for you all. Your 
everyday needs from the world must be better met. And 
since we are a collective as a country, our national 
security must be assured. As that is done, the pursuit of 
our aspirations must be facilitated. The foreign policy 
being the link to the outside, it should enable us to draw 
what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or 
capital, best practices, or even work opportunities. And 
obviously, we would all like to be strong; we would like 
to look good and we would like to feel appreciated. Any 
policy which ensures all these goals has a lot going for 
it. It does not necessarily have to sound nice; it must 
simply pass the smell test. 
9. Which of the following best describes a good
foreign policy according to the author?
(a) The one which makes a nation and its
citizens independent.
(b) A policy that gives us better work
opportunities.
(c) The one that strives to fulfill our usual
demands from the world.
(d) A policy that connects us to the world better.
10. Consider the following:
1. Poverty reduction
2. More H-1B visas
3. Continuous supply of crude oil
4. Innovative ways of school education
5. Increased foreign indirect investment
6. A missile deal with Russia
Assuming the author is talking about Indian 
context, which of the above things can be a part 
of good foreign policy, as implied by the 
passage? 
(a) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
(c) 3, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
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11. The digits of a two-digit natural number differ
by 1. If the digits are reversed, and the number
obtained by reversing the digits is added to the
original number, we get 187. What is the
difference between the original number and the
number obtained by reversing the digits?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 8
12. P, Q, R and S are four numbers such that the sum
of P and Q is 4/5th of the sum of R and S, and the
ratio of R and S is 3:2. P is half of R, and Q is
5/4th of S. If sum of these four numbers is 900,
then what is the difference between Q and P?
(a) 150
(b) 100
(c) 250
(d) 300
13. If a set P has 7 elements, then the number of
subsets of P that contain at least 4 elements is
(a) 32
(b) 64
(c) 78
(d) 81
14. A, B and C together can finish a work in 4 days.
If A alone can finish the same work in 18 days,
whereas C alone can finish it in 12 days, then
how many days will Btake to finish the same
work while working alone?
(a) 16 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 11 days
15. A tank is half filled. It is attached with two
pumps P and Q, which can fill an empty tank in
16 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. If both
the pumps are opened simultaneously, then how
much time would it take to fill the tank?
(a) 80/9 min
(b) 70/9 min
(c) 40/9 min
(d) 76/9 min
16. The following pie-chart shows the percentage
distribution of different modes of transport used
by the people. Study the pie chart carefully and
answer the question that follows.
Total number of people = 28600 
Number of people who uses car and bicycle as 
modes of transportation is what percent of the 
total number of people? 
(a) 34%
(b) 17%
(c) 43%
(d) 25%
Rickshaw
14%
Bicycle
11%
Bike
35%
Foot
5%
Car
23%
Train
12%
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17. The following pie-charts show the percentage of
literate female, literate male and illiterates in
2001 and 2011. Study the pie charts carefully
and answer the question that follows.
What is the difference between the number of 
literate females in 2001 and 2011? 
(a) 6240
(b) 3890
(c) 4000
(d) 5240
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 
Read the following two passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
India will achieve net zero emissions latest by 2070, that 
is, there will be no net carbon emissions, Prime Minister 
Narendra Modi declared at the COP26 summit. By 2030, 
India would also ensure that 50% of its energy will be 
from renewable energy sources. However, none of this 
can help the 1.5°C mark from being breached. A major 
point of emphasis of the report, particularly for South 
Asia, is the trend in the ‘wet bulb’ temperature — an 
index of the impact of heat and humidity combined — 
and its effect on health. Lucknow and Patna, according 
to one of several studies cited in the report, were among 
the cities predicted to reach wet-bulb temperatures of 
35°C if emissions continued to rise, while 
Bhubaneshwar, Chennai, Mumbai, Indore, and 
Ahmedabad are ‘at risk’ of reaching wet-bulb 
temperatures of 32°C-34°C with continued emissions. 
This will have consequences such as a rise in heatwave-
linked deaths or reduced productivity. Global sea levels 
will likely rise 44cm-76cm this century if governments 
meet their current emission-cutting pledges. But with 
higher emissions, and if ice sheets collapse more quickly 
than expected, sea levels could rise as much as 2 metres 
this century and 5m by 2150. India is one of the most 
vulnerable countries in terms of the population that will 
be affected by sea-level rise. By the middle of the 
century, around 35 million of its people could face 
annual coastal flooding, with 45 million-50 million at 
risk by the end of the century if emissions are high. 
Experience has shown that partisan economic 
calculations trump climate considerations, but India 
must shore up its adaptation measures and urgently move 
to secure the futures of its many vulnerable who have the 
most to lose. 
Illiterate
65%
Literate 
Male
24%
Literate 
Female
11%
Total population in 2001 = 20,000
Illiterate
33%
Literate 
Male
36%
Literate 
Female
31%
Total population in 2011 = 24,000
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18. Based on the above passage, the following
assumptions have been made: 
1. India alone achieving net zero emissions is
meaningless as the developed countries are 
the major carbon emitters. 
2. Climate change in India will induce lesser
precipitation. 
3. In the current scenario, India, alone, cannot
mitigate the negative impact of climate 
change. 
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? 
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
19. Based on the above passage, which of the
following are the likely impacts of climate 
change in India? 
1. Increase in deaths of people
2. Decline in coastal flooding
3. Decline in food grain production
4. Decline in labour productivity
Select the correct answer from the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Passage – 2 
“Keeping up with the Joneses” is an expression that is 
commonly used to describe the attitude of always 
wanting to keep up with the neighbors in terms of 
possessions and wanting to have the things that our 
neighbors have. Envy is another word that can be used to 
describe this frame of mind. Unfortunately, it is an 
attitude that is widespread all over the world. 
Throughout our childhood and most of our adult life, 
competition is the order of the day. Right from our 
school days we are taught that our self-worth is measured 
in relation to other people. At school, our grading system 
gives you a number at the end of the term. If you “pass 
number one” that means you are the best in your class. If 
you “pass number 25” that means, there are 24 other kids 
that are better than you are. This carries on through 
life. The rivalry does not always end when children grow 
up. The success of one child in adulthood is measured 
against the success of another. 
20. Which of the following is the most crucial and
logical inference that can be made from the 
above passage? 
(a) Competition is at the root of all problems.
(b) Competitive mindset is an innate 
characteristic of human nature. 
(c) Competitive attitude may not always be
ethical. 
(d) The system of competition at different
stages of human life should be done away 
with. 
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21. A sweet shop owner prepared 1760 laddoos. He
has a square tray in which he wants to put these 
laddoos in such a way that the number of rows 
and columns is same. After putting all the 
laddoos, he got to know that he needs some more 
laddoos to completely fill the tray. What is the 
minimum number of laddoos he needs to fill the 
tray? 
(a) 24
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 4
22. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other
are such that product of the first two co-prime 
numbers is 459, and product of the last two co-
prime numbers is 621. What is the sum of these 
three co-prime numbers? 
(a) 57
(b) 67
(c) 79
(d) 81
23. Which of the following is the least possible
fraction that will get divided by each one of 5/18, 
8/9, and 10/27? 
(a) 25/9
(b) 40/9
(c) 25/3
(d) 81/4
24. In a school annual function, 93% students
participated in dance and 74% students
participated in drama. Find the percentage of
students who participated in both.
(a) 65%
(b) 67%
(c) 69%
(d) 71%
25. Rahul has some toffees with him. When his
friend Shyam asks him about the number of
toffees he has with him, Rahul says, “If you
subtract 8/3 from the number of toffees I have,
and then multiply the resultant by 21/2, you will
get 7/2 times the number of toffees I have”.
How many toffees does Rahul have?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
26. 18 tractors can finish a work in 12 days and 12
backhoe loaders can finish the same work in 9
days. What is the work efficiency ratio of a
tractor and a backhoe loader?
(a) 2:1
(b) 3:4
(c) 1:2
(d) 4:3
27. If A = {x:1<x<6, x∈N} and B = {y:2<y<9,
y∈N}, then what will be the value of (A∩B)?
(a) { }
(b) {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
(c) {3, 4, 5}
(d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
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28. In UPSC CSE prelims examination, 60%
students failed in GS and 50% students failed in
CSAT. If 20%of the students failed in both, then
find the percentage of those who passed in GS?
(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 60%
29. Two inlet pipes X and Y are used to fill a tank.
If Y fills one-fourth of tank and the remaining
part is filled by X, then total time taken to fill the
tank is 35 minutes. If X fills one-fourth of tank
and the remaining part is filled by Y, then total
time taken to fill the tank is 25 minutes. Find the
time (in minutes) taken by X and Y together to
fill the tank.
(a) 40
(b) 40/3
(c) 80/3
(d) 20
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: 
Read the following four passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
The story of globalisation is a story of the capital’s 
enhanced capacity to flee from the shackles of too much 
democracy to places that are well-controlled under a 
strong regime, where all clearances are available at a 
‘single window’. Investments moved to places where 
environmental regulations are lax, wages are low, labour 
standards are weak, and dissent is answered with an iron 
fist. This was working perfectly until its ripple effects 
reached the shores of western democracies. Now the 
West is waking up to the challenge and the G7 move is 
an acknowledgement of the crisis. 
30. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) The problems created by weak regulations
now have global implications.
(b) Countries under authoritarian rules are
favoured by investors globally.
(c) G7 nations are restricting the flow of capital
and pushing for better global standards in
labour, environment and taxation.
(d) Globalisation has led to the weakening of
labour standards and reduction in wages in
developing countries.
Passage – 2 
Asian cosmopolitanism had developed in regions which 
have to accommodate not just diversities but “radical 
diversities” that may prove to be dangerous if they are 
brought together in the same space. To accommodate 
these differences and peculiarities in the practices of 
different communities, everyday mechanisms of coping 
have evolved. This has resulted in a unique form of 
cosmopolitanism where differences can be 
accommodated without pressuring members of one 
community to be like the other based on a notion of 
universal brotherhood. On the contrary, members of one 
community can go to extraordinary lengths to help 
members of the other community maintain their 
customary practices including their separate dining and 
dietary habits. 
31. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the central idea of the passage?
(a) Asian cosmopolitanism teaches the people
to accept the radical differences among
themselves while promoting the
community's feelings at the same time.
(b) Asian cosmopolitanism is resulting in the
blending of diverse cultures into one
common national identity.
(c) Asian cosmopolitanism teaches the people
to divest of all prejudices so that they can
emerge as unbiased citizens of the nation-
state.
(d) Asian cosmopolitanism leads to a 
superficial form of tolerance of diversity. 
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Passage – 3 
A history of clothing can do several things: it will 
introduce students to thinking more about what ‘dress 
codes’, and opposition to them, have done in the past, 
and what they signify. For one, dress codes symbolized 
and affirmed power structures – whether these were 
colonial, upper caste, religious or patriarchal power 
structures. By using their power and even violence, 
states, religious authorities, upper castes, or even male 
heads of families could insist that people conform to 
prescribed ways of dressing. Societal hierarchies were 
thus sustained and perpetuated. 
32. Which of the following is/are the most rational
and logical Inference/Inferences that can be 
made from the passage? 
1. Knowledge about the history of clothing
makes a student understand society in a 
meaningful manner. 
2. Knowledge about the history of clothing
will help in building greater civility and 
respect for differences. 
3. By controlling clothing in society, the state
controlled the power structures in society. 
Select the correct answer from the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Passage – 4 
The stress caused by the pandemic has been sustained 
over a long time and can be categorized as chronic stress. 
Chronic stress has been found to kill brain cells and even 
reduce the size of the brain. Chronic stress has a 
shrinking effect on the prefrontal cortex, the area of the 
brain responsible for memory and learning. Studies in 
behavioural science show that we don’t tend to make 
good decisions under stress. They have repeatedly 
shown that we often don’t make good decisions even in 
normal times. For example, we know exercising is good 
for our health, but we don’t do it enough. We know 
overeating is bad for us, but we still indulge in it often. 
We know binging on social media takes away time from 
doing what we are supposed to be doing but we can’t 
stop scrolling. 
33. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) People have stopped outdoor activities
fearing the pandemic.
(b) Memory and learning suffer due to the
chronic stress.
(c) The virus has affected the prefrontal cortex
leading to the reduction in the size of the
brain.
(d) The pandemic has made it more difficult for
people to think rationally and take correct
decisions.
34. Find the HCF of 0.24, 0.06 and 0.018.
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.0006
(c) 0.006
(d) 0.06
35. When 60 is added to a certain number, then new
number becomes 400% of the original number.
What is the original number?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 15
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36. In the following Venn diagram, determine the
value of (A∩C) - (A∩B).
(a) {e, b}
(b) {e, f, d}
(c) {f}
(d) {∅}
37. The following pie-chart shows the expenditure
of a person on different items. Study the
following pie chart carefully and answer the
question that follows.
What is the percentage of expenditure on Rent? 
(a) 30%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
38. What will be the average of a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6,
………, a + 12, where a ɛ N? 
(a) a + 6
(b) 2a + 12
(c) a + 12
(d) a + 24
39. The given diagram shows the number of people
who have received vaccine doses I, II and III.
The number of people who have received at least
one dose is 214. What is the percentage of
people who have received at least two doses of
vaccine?
(a) 12.33%
(b) 27.57%
(c) 18.55%
(d) 30.40%
40. If the sum of two numbers is 40 and their product
is 175, then what will be their difference?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 60
Food
1080
Transport
360
Rent
540
Education
360
EMIs
540
Savings
720
Expenditure of a person
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Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 
Read the following two passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
Women in uniform provide an extremely powerful 
symbol of positive authority, confidence, empowerment 
and social change. Let us stop applauding “all-woman 
police stations”, a meaningless symbolic gesture that is 
regressive, both conceptually and in practice. Instead, let 
us induct more women so that each police station in the 
country has them in adequate numbers to attend to all 
citizens, including women victims and complainants. 
And that woman’sissues are addressed at the nearest 
police posts instead of their being sent to specific ones. 
41. With reference to the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made: 
1. Presently police stations in the country do
not have enough women cops. 
2. If we stop applauding all-woman police
stations, then we will be perceived as 
progressive. 
Which of the above assumptions are valid? 
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) None
(d) 2 only
Passage – 2 
What do you do if you and your family have invested 
money and emotion in making you a doctor and you do 
not get enough marks to qualify for a government 
medical college? Many such students used to settle for a 
Bachelor in Dental Surgery degree. This led to a 
mushrooming of dental colleges of dubious quality and 
India produced far more dental surgeons than were in 
demand. Subsequently, several of these colleges shut 
down. The only option then is to do MBBS in a country 
that one can afford. A situation of high demand coupled 
with a student-unfriendly system is designed for the 
entry of middlemen. As soon as you register with a 
coaching agency or the NEET results are out, you are 
bombarded with offers from agencies ensuring seats in 
Nepal, Mauritius, Ukraine, Russia, China and so on. 
Parents are lured into spending their hard-earned savings 
by middlemen who paint a rosy picture of the scenario in 
these countries. Even after this, these students often fail 
to clear the foreign medical graduate examination — this 
has a pass rate of 15 per cent. Caught between parental 
pressure and an unfriendly system, the students have 
nowhere to go. 
42. Increased offers for MBBS seats in foreign
universities are due to which of the following?
1. Lack of MBBS seats in government medical
colleges the country as compared to the
demand
2. Lack of private and government medical
colleges in India
3. Mushrooming of middlemen
4. Increased aspirations of Indian parents for
their children
5. Shutting down of dental colleges in the
country
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below 
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only
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43. Why do foreign medical university graduates
have a pass rate of a mere 15 per cent in the
foreign medical graduate examination?
(a) Poor quality of education in foreign
universities
(b) Standards of education are different in a
foreign and an Indian university
(c) Parental pressure and an unfriendly system
(d) None of the above
44. In a country 80% of the citizens think football is
their national game, 85 % of the citizens think
cricket is their national game, and 70 % of the
citizens think both cricket and football are their
national games. If 3,00,000 citizens think neither
cricket nor football is their national game, then
find the population of that country.
(a) 40,00,000
(b) 50,00,000
(c) 60,00,000
(d) 30,00,000
45. Dhaniram and Maniram can plough a field in 10
days; Maniram and Sukhiram can plough the
same field in 15 days; and Sukhiram and
Dhaniram can plough the same field in 20 days.
They, together, plough for 6 days, after which
Dhaniram got sick and left the work. Remaining
two continued to plough the field. After 4 days
Maniram left the work citing personal reasons.
How long will Sukhiram take to plough the
remaining field?
(a) 14 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 12 days
46. Ananya has some colour pencils in two boxes. If
sum of the pencils in the two boxes is 112 and
their HCF is 16, then what must be the difference
between the number of pencils in the two boxes?
(a) 42
(b) 38
(c) 24
(d) 16
47. What will be the remainder we get when 468 is
divided by 192?
(a) 16
(b) 49
(c) 64
(d) 21
48. If the denominator of a fraction is increased by
350% and numerator of that fraction is increased
by 400%, then the resultant fraction is 11/45.
What is the original fraction?
(a) 12/65
(b) 10/27
(c) 11/50
(d) 23/90
49. The graph given below shows the different parts
of the total expenditure made while constructing
a meeting hall. Study the following graph and
answer the question that follows.
What fraction of the expenditure and how much 
money was spent on labour, if total expense was 
Rs.142400? 
(a) 4/9th part, Rs. 42960
(b) 2/5th part, Rs. 56960
(c) 3/5th part, Rs. 85440
(d) 2/3rd part, Rs. 94933
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50. Pranjal and Anjal together can make a car in 10
days. Anjal and Karan together take 15 days to 
make the same car. If efficiency of Pranjal is 
twice that of Karan, then in how many days will 
Anjal alone make that car? 
(a) 30 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 40 days
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 
Read the following two passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
It has been proven time and again that when more 
women enter the workforce, economies grow faster. 
When women are empowered, the battle to eradicate 
poverty is more fruitful. Studies conducted in various 
nations have proven that there is a direct correlation 
between greater gender diversity and higher GDPs. We 
must ensure that all of India’s women get equal access to 
education, equal access to opportunities, and equal pay 
at work. By empowering women, we increase their right 
to economic resources, as well as their decision-making 
powers. This, in turn, benefits their households and their 
communities. Women begin investing more in their 
children’s education, the quality of human capital 
improves, and we as a nation reap the benefits of 
economic prosperity. 
51. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the central idea of the passage given
above?
(a) Empowerment of women leads to the socio-
economic development of society and
nation.
(b) By empowering women, we can reap the
benefit of higher GDP.
(c) Women empowerment is a necessary
precursor to the socio-economic
advancement of a nation.
(d) Empowerment of women helps in their
development in the social and economic
spheres.
52. According to the author, how can we reap the
benefits of economic prosperity?
1. By improving the quality of human resource
2. By increasing education penetration among
both boys and girls
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below. 
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Passage – 2 
The United States Senate unanimously passed a law 
making daylight saving time (DST) permanent, 
scrapping the biannual practice of putting clocks forward 
and back coinciding with the arrival and departure of 
winter. If the legislation, Sunshine Protection Act, passes 
in the House of Representatives as well, and is signed 
into law by President Joe Biden, it will come into effect 
in November 2023. The practice of turning clocks back 
by an hour to standard time every November will stop — 
and DST, which now starts in March, will be in effect all 
year round. The key argument is that DST is meant to 
save energy. It involves resetting clocks ahead by an 
hour in spring, and behind by an hour in autumn, and 
those in favour of DST argue that it means a longer 
evening daytime. Individuals will complete their daily 
work routines an hour earlier, and that extra hour of 
daylight means — or is supposed to mean — a lower 
consumption of energy. 
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53. Which of the following is the objective of
“Sunlight Protection Act”? 
(a) Energy Conservation
(b) Harnessing Solar Energy
(c) Promotingwork from home culture
(d) None of the above
54. What will be the product of LCM and HCF of
4/5, 8/15, 2/25? 
(a) 1
(b) 8/75
(c) 16/375
(d) 4/25
55. Subhi got 20 more marks in Science than the
average marks in Geography and English. If in 
English, she got 60 marks, then what were her 
marks in Geography? 
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 60
(d) Data not sufficient
56. If 5x + (1/x) = 4, then find the value of f(x) =
125x3 + 1/x3
(a) 4
(b) -4
(c) 0
(d) Both (a) and (b)
57. The following graph shows the percentage
expenses of a sportsman on different items and
his total monthly expense. Study the following
pie chart carefully and answer the question that
follows.
What is the ratio of the expenses done on diet 
and gym membership? 
(a) 4:1
(b) 3:4
(c) 1:3
(d) 2:3
58. In an exam, average marks of A, B and C are
650. If marks of B are 50 more than A, and
marks of C are 20 less than A, then what are the 
marks of C? 
(a) 615
(b) 1920
(c) 580
(d) 620
59. In a group of 80 people, 25 drink wine but not
soda, while 33 drink wine. How many people
drink soda only?
(a) 22
(b) 47
(c) 43
(d) 29
Diet 
expense
24%
Coach fee
19%
Transport 
cost
9%
Gears
16%
Gym 
members
hip
32%
Total monthly expense = Rs. 16000
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60. 9 people distributed some wheat in a flood
affected region. Their average contribution was
450 kg. One other person, M, contributed 450 kg
more than the average of all these 10 persons
(i.e. 9 persons plus M). Find the total
contribution of 10 people.
(a) 5000 kg
(b) 4500 kg
(c) 4050 kg
(d) 9000 kg
61. Three numbers are in ratio of 41:47:53. If their
HCF is 4, then these numbers must be:
(a) 172, 198, 224
(b) 160, 180, 200
(c) 152, 178, 204
(d) 164, 188, 212
62. The following graph shows the percentage
distribution of different age groups of the
employees working in a company. Study the pie
chart carefully and answer the question that
follows.
If the number of people in 60+ age group is 48, then 
the number of people in age group 18-30 must be: 
(a) 56
(b) 42
(c) 68
(d) 72
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: 
Read the following three passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
Translating the Constitution of India in Santhali had been 
on Professor Sripati Tudu’s mind for a few years before 
he actually got down to starting the mammoth task: that 
of translating the longest written constitution of any 
country in the world—235 pages—in the OlChiki script. 
An assistant professor in the Santhali language at the 
Sidho-Kanho-Birsha University in Purulia, West Bengal, 
Tudu started this initiative because he wanted the 
document to be more accessible and available for a wider 
group that may not necessarily be familiar with 
languages in which a translation of the Constitution is 
available. The nation runs on the basis of the 
Constitution. But the community has been historically 
deprived and so people in the community need to read it 
to understand what their rights are, the provisions and 
what is written inside it. 
63. Which of the following best reflects the critical
message of the passage?
(a) The ambitious project of the academician
will soon be realised.
(b) The net benefit of translating the
Constitution is debatable.
(c) For better understanding of rights and
duties, the Constitution requires to be
translated in multiple languages.
(d) Indian Constitution is available in multiple
languages.
30-40
30%
60+age
12%
50-60
20%
18-30
14%
40-50
24%
Percentage distribution of different 
age groups of the employees in a 
company
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Passage – 2 
Permafrost peatlands — frozen, carbon-storing expanses 
of land — in Europe and western Siberia might be 
approaching their tipping point faster than expected, a 
new study warned. By 2040, northern Europe might 
become too wet and warm to support permafrost 
peatlands, the study published in Nature Climate Change 
added. Peatlands are a class of wetlands, which are 
ecosystems flooded with water. Waterlogged conditions 
limit microbial decay of dead plant materials rich in 
carbon dioxide. This prevents the reintroduction of the 
gas into the atmosphere. Peatlands, which occupy only 3 
per cent of the global land surface, store twice as much 
carbon as all the world’s forests, according to the United 
Nations Environment Programme. Some peatlands are 
buried under frozen ground or permafrost and exist as 
permafrost peatlands. They are found in the northern 
parts of Alaska, Canada, Russia and parts of northern 
Europe, the researchers said. Data on parts of Canada 
and Siberia is still lacking, study lead author, Richard 
Fewster, told Down To Earth. Frozen wetlands in Europe 
and western Siberia store up to 39 billion tonnes of 
carbon. This is equivalent to twice that is held by the 
whole of European forests. “Huge stocks of peat carbon 
have been protected for millennia by frozen conditions, 
but once those conditions become unsuitable, all that 
stored carbon can be lost very quickly,” study co-author 
Paul Morris, associate professor of biogeoscience at 
Leeds, said. 
64. Which of the following best reflects the critical
message of the passage?
(a) Global warming will harm the carbon
storing capacity of peatlands.
(b) Carbon storing capacity of peatland is
extremely high.
(c) Peatlands prevents microbial decay of
plants.
(d) Peatlands are found all over the world.
65. On the basis of the above passage, consider the
following statements about peatlands.
1. They are a type of water body.
2. Ice protects peatland from degradation.
Which of the statements given above are 
correct? 
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Passage - 3 
New data and analysis in the report, New Threats to 
Human Security in the Anthropocene, shows that 
people’s sense of safety and security is at a low in almost 
every country, including the richest countries, despite 
years of upwards development success. Those benefiting 
from some of the highest levels of good health, wealth, 
and education outcomes are reporting even greater 
anxiety than 10 years ago. To tackle this disconnect 
between development and perceived security, the report 
calls for greater solidarity across borders and a new 
approach to development; one that allows people to live 
free from want, fear, anxiety and indignity. The 
imperative to act now has never been more clear, as new 
findings also show that global life expectancy at birth is 
falling for a second year because of COVID-19, and 
overall human development measures are also moving 
downward. Furthermore, climate change is likely to 
become a leading cause of death around the world. Even 
with moderate mitigation of emissions, some 40 million 
people might die because of changes in temperatures 
before the end of the century. The report examines a 
cluster of threats that have shifted to become more 
prominent in recent years including those from digital 
technologies, inequalities, conflicts, and the ability of 
healthcare systems to tackle new challenges like the 
COVID-19 pandemic. 
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66. With reference to the above passage which of the
statements given below is/are correct?
1. An inverse relation exists between
development and perceived sense of
security.
2. Life expectancy at birth is falling due to
pandemic in some countries only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 
below. 
(a) 1 only(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Which of the following is/are the most logical/
rational inferences that can be drawn from the
passage?
1. The sense of security is low in almost every
country.
2. Climate change will cause most number of
deaths globally by the end of the century.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 
below. 
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Difference between two numbers is 6, and the
sum of their square is 1476. If their LCM is 120,
then what will be their HCF?
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
69. When 22 is added to Qasim’s age, it becomes
125% of his real age. What is Qasim’s age?
(a) 105 years
(b) 72 years
(c) 88 years
(d) 75 years
70. In a fleet of 20 commandos, 8 have guns, 10
have knifes and 5 have neither a gun nor a knife.
How many of these commandos have both a
knife and a gun?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 3
71. Abhishek and Vipul work in an interior design
company. Abhishek and Vipul alone can finish
the same work in 20 days and 40 days
respectively. If both are working together, then
on which day will the work get completed?
(a) 13th day
(b) 26th day
(c) 14th day
(d) 27th day
72. 5 times the cube of a number is 15 times the
square of that number. The number is:
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7
73. A number when divided by a divisor leaves a
remainder of 24. When twice the original
number is divided by the same divisor, the
remainder is 11. What is the value of the divisor?
(a) 13
(b) 59
(c) 35
(d) 37
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74. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their
difference is 37. The difference of their squares
must be
(a) 37
(b) 370
(c) 463
(d) 3700
75. Which of the following numbers is the greatest?
(a) 6 √5
3
(b) 8 √2
3
(c) 2 √130
3
(d) √900
3
76. Let D be a recurring decimal of the form D = 0.
a b a b a b ... where digits a and b lie between 0
and 9. Further, at most one of them is zero.
Which of the following numbers necessarily
produces an integer, when multiplied by D?
(a) 18
(b) 108
(c) 198
(d) 288
77. In some code, letters a, b, c, d and e represent
numbers 2, 4, 5, 6 and 10. We just do not know
which letter represents which number.
Consider the following relationships:
I. a + c = e
II. b − d = d
III. e + a = b
Which of the following statements is true? 
(a) b = 4, d = 2
(b) a = 4, e = 6
(c) b = 6, e = 2
(d) a = 4, c = 6
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 
Read the following two passages and answer the items 
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items 
should be based on the passages only. 
Passage – 1 
Interdependence theory developed as a critique of realist 
theory in the 1970s. It challenged the realist idea that the 
state was the most important entity in international 
relations. Interdependence theorists stressed the 
importance of non-state actors, such as multinational 
corporations and their influential role in a more complex 
global society in which military power had become far 
less important or virtually irrelevant to shaping relations 
between countries. Liberal institutionalist and 
interdependence approaches overlap to a considerable 
extent. Both have a much more optimistic view of human 
nature and share the view that growing interdependence 
will strengthen the institutions of regional cooperation 
and open up greater opportunities for strengthening the 
United Nations and developing mechanisms of world 
governance. It is certainly possible for the liberal 
institutionalists to point to the fact that the overwhelming 
majority of transactions between states are peaceful, in 
accordance with international law, and to the mutual 
benefit of the states involved. The creation and 
development of the European Union can be seen from 
the liberal perspective as a powerful riposte to those who 
believe international politics is based on nothing more 
than a constant pursuit of power after power and that it 
always must be a zero-sum game. 
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78. With respect to above passage consider the
following statements.
1. There is a complete overlap of Liberal
Institutionalist and Interdependence
approaches.
2. Interdependence theorist are critical of
multinational corporations.
3. Regional cooperation will strengthen world
governance mechanisms.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Passage – 2 
Ghalib’s poem was composed against the backdrop of 
the decline of the Mughal Empire. His home territory, 
the Indo-Gangetic plain, once ruled by a single monarch, 
was now split between contending chiefdoms and 
armies. Brother was fighting brother; unity and 
federation were being undermined. But even as he wrote, 
a new (and foreign) power was asserting its influence 
across the land in the form of the British, who were 
steadily acquiring control of the greater part of the 
subcontinent. Then, in 1857 large sections of the native 
population rose up in what the colonialists called the 
Sepoy Mutiny and Indian nationalists later referred to as 
the First War of Indian Independence. Some of the 
bloodiest fighting was in Ghalib’s home town, Delhi – 
still nominally the capital of the Mughals and in time to 
become the capital of the British Raj as well. His own 
sympathies were divided. He was the recipient of a 
stipend from the new rulers, yet a product of Mughal 
culture and refinement. He saw, more clearly than the 
British colonialist did then or the Indian nationalist does 
now, that it was impossible here to separate right from 
wrong, that horrible atrocities were being committed by 
both sides. Marooned in his home, he wrote a 
melancholy account of how ‘Hindustan has become the 
arena of the mighty whirlwind and the blazing fire’. ‘To 
what new order can the Indian look with joy?’ he asked. 
79. Which of the following best implies the crux of
the passage? 
(a) Ghalib foresaw the rise of British in India.
(b) Weak central authority gave the British the
scope of expansion. 
(c) Widespread looting was witnessed in Delhi
during the mutiny of 1857. 
(d) Indian nationalists are not clear in their
vision. 
80. With reference to the above passage, consider
the following statements. 
1. Ghalib was born in Delhi.
2. Event of 1857 was differently interpreted by
different sections of people. 
3. Delhi remained the capital even after the
mutiny. 
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct? 
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
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in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior 
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VISIONIAS 
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATION 
APTITUDE TEST– (4019) – 2023 
1 (b) 
mn = 625= (5)4 
Hence, m = 5, and n = 4 
We have to find the value of (m + 1)(n/2) + 1 
Putting the value of m and n in the above equation, we get: 
(m + 1)(n/2) + 1 = (5 + 1)(4/2) + 1 = (6)2+1 = (6)3 = 216 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
2 (b) 
Let Ram and Sunita have Rs. 105x and Rs. 105y amounts respectively. 
∴ 105x × 105y = 308700 
Or 105x × 105y = (105 × 7) × (105 × 4) 
We know that, Sunita has less money than Ram. So, x > y. 
∴ x = 7 and y = 4 
Hence, Ram has 105x = 105 × 7 = Rs. 735. 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
3 (c) 
Sports persons who can play only hockey = 40 
Also, n(H∩B∩C)= 10 % of 160 = 10 × 160 / 100 = 16 
And, n(H ∩ B) + n (H ∩ C) + n (C ∩ B) – 3 n(H∩B∩C) = 30 
Now, those who can play cricket only or basketball only = 160 – (40 + 30 + 16) 
= 160 – 86 = 74 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
4 (c) 
Shubhi’s one day work = 1/60 
Krishna’s one day work = 1/30 
Anurag’s one day work = 1/20 
Then according to the question, total work done in four days = 4 × [1/20] + 1/30 + 1/60 
= (12 + 2 + 1)/60 = 15/60 = 1/4 
∴ 1/4 part of work is done in 4 days. 
∴ 1 part of work will be done in 4 × 4 = 16 days 
Thus, whole work will be finished in 16 days. 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
5 (c) 
Difference of central angles between dress fee and building fee = 580 – 200 = 380 
According to the question, 
380 = 1200 
Or 10 = 1200/38 
Central angle of tuition fee = 760 
So, Expense on tuition fee = (1200/38) × 76 = Rs. 2400 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
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6 (b) 
20% means 1/5th part. 
120 litre means 1/5th part full. 
So, in 1 litre tank is 1/(5×120)th part full. 
So, in 280 litre tank must be 280/(5×120)th, i.e. 7/15 part full. 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
7 (d) 
Let’s consider the given statements. 
S1. As we know that natural number are 1, 2, 3, 4……………….. 
And whole numbers are 0, 1, 2, 3……………….. 
Then sum of first natural number and first whole number = 1 + 0 = 1 
Hence, statement 1 is wrong. 
S2. As √3 is an irrational number, any number added to an irrational number will remain irrational. 
Hence, statement 2 is also wrong. 
S3. As we know that first whole number is zero and first natural number is 1. 
So, product of (√3+1) with the sum of first natural number and first whole number 
= (√3 + 1) × (0 + 1) = √3 + 1 
Hence, statement 3 is also wrong. 
So, all the three statements are wrong. 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
8 (b) 
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Such is the power our minds have”. However, this is a 
bit more general and different from “willpower”. So this is an incorrect option. 
Option (b) is correct. The passage mentions, “You are what you eat, and similarly, you are what you 
think, and you are totally what you want to believe.” The word ‘totally’ is noteworthy here. What we 
think and believe defines who we are. So this option best explains who you are. So this is the correct 
option. 
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “what choices we make, how we conduct ourselves, what 
mood we choose to be in and be consumed by, and how we allow others to see us, accept us, define us, 
and celebrate or shun us.” So it implies we are what nature and behaviour we choose. But this statement 
is also a subset of the option (b) and is not holistic enough in comparison to option (b) which is more 
appropriate. 
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “who we are, what we do, how we behave, what choices 
we make, how we conduct ourselves, what mood we choose to be in and be consumed by, and how we 
allow others to see us, accept us, define us, and celebrate or shun us.” This implies that you are the one 
who decides your way of living, and the way you conduct. However, this again is a part of option (b). So 
this option does not best explain who a person is in comparison to option (b). So, this is an incorrect 
option. 
9 (c) 
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “The foreign policy being the link to the outside, it should 
enable us to draw what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or capital, best practices, or even 
work opportunities”. So, the passage is talking about an interdependent world, and not about 
independence, about linking and not decoupling. So this option is incorrect. 
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “This could be in terms of technology or capital, best 
practices, or even work opportunities.” It implies a good foreign policy must also provide us with better 
work opportunities. But this statement does not comprehensively capture the domain of a good foreign 
policy, as work opportunities is just one small part of the overall needs of the citizens of a country. So this 
statement is restricted in domain. Let’s keep it on hold and consider the next option. 
Option (c) is correct. The passage mentions, “A good foreign policy must work for you all. Your 
everyday needs from the world must be better met.” It implies a good foreign policy must fulfill our 
everyday or usual needs from the world. It also includes other things which are mentioned in the passage 
– e.g. enable us to draw what we seek. So this option best describes a good foreign policy. Therefore, this
is the correct option.
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Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “The foreign policy being the link to the outside, it should 
enable us to draw what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or capital, best practices, or even 
work opportunities.” It implies that a good foreign policy must not only connect us to the world in a better 
way, but should also meet our demands. So, connecting to the outside world is necessary, but not 
sufficient. Therefore, this option does not describe a good foreign policy in the best manner as compared 
to option (c). 
10 (d) 
Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “A good foreign policy must work for you all. Your 
everyday needs from the world must be better met”. Poverty reduction does comprise a part of everyday 
needs and hence can also be a part of good foreign policy. So this statement is correct. 
Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions, “The foreign policy being the link to the outside, it should 
enable us to draw what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or capital, best practices, or even 
work opportunities.” It implies more work opportunities are a part of good foreign policy and H-1B visas 
provide people with such work opportunities. So this is a correct statement. 
Statement 3 is correct. The passage mentions, “A good foreign policy must work for you all. Your 
everyday needs from the world must be better met.” It implies fulfilling our everyday needs is part of 
good foreign policy and crude is an everyday necessity. So this statement is correct. 
Statement 4 is correct. The passage mentions, “The foreign policy being the link to the outside, it should 
enable us to draw what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or capital, best practices, or even 
work opportunities.” It implies adopting best practices in any field of the world is part of a good foreign 
policy. So the innovative (like use of technology) practices in school education are also a part of it. So this 
is a correct statement. 
Statement 5 is correct. The passage mentions, “The foreign policy being the link to the outside, it should 
enable us to draw what we seek. This could be in terms of technology or capital, best practices, or even 
work opportunities.” The drawing of investment (for development works) from the world community is 
part of a good foreign policy. Foreign indirect investment (capital) is part of the investment we draw from 
the world. So this is a correct statement. 
Statement 6 is correct. The passage mentions, “A good foreign policy must work for you all. Your 
everyday needs from the world must be better met. And since we are a collective as a country, our 
national security must be assured.” A missile deal with Russia is part of our national security and 
fulfilling it is part of a good foreign policy. So this statement is also correct. 
11 (c) 
Let the digit at unit place be y and the digit at tens place be x. 
The two-digit number thus formed will be (10x + y) and after reversing the digits, the number will be (10y 
+ x).
Now, according to thequestion,
(10x + y) + (10y + x) = 187
or 11x + 11y = 187
or x + y = 17 …….(i) 
It is given that the digits of this two-digit number differ by 1. 
i.e. x - y = 1 …..(ii) (let x > y) 
On adding equations (i) and (ii) we get, 
2x = 18 
or x = 9 
Putting this value of x in equation (ii), we get 
9 – y = 1 
or y = 9 – 1 = 8 
Hence, original number = 10x + y = 9 × 10 + 8 = 98 
The number obtained by reversing the digits = 10y + x = 8 × 10 + 9 = 89 
Difference between the original number and the number obtained by reversing the digits = 98 - 89 = 9 
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. 
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12 (b) 
According to the question, 
P + Q + R + S = 900 ……………………..(i) 
(P + Q) = (R + S) × (4/5) ………………(ii) 
R:S = 3:2 ………………………….(iii) 
P = R/2 ……………….(iv) 
Q = S × (5/4) …………………..(v) 
From equations (i) &(ii), we get: 
(R + S) × (4/5) + (R + S) = 900 
Or (R + S) × 9/5 = 900 
Or R + S = 500 …………………..(vi) 
From equation (iii), we get: 
S = 2R/3 
Putting the value of S in equation (vi), we get: 
R + 2R/3 = 500 
Or 5R/3 = 500 
So, R = 300 
And, S = (2/3) × 300 = 200 (Since, S = 2R/3) 
From eq. (iv), we get: 
P = R/2 = 300/2 = 150 
From eq. (v), we gte: 
Q = S × (5/4) = 200 × (5/4) = 250 
So, the difference between Q and P = 250 – 150 = 100 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
13 (b) 
Number of subsets of P that contain at least 4 elements = 7C4 +
7C5 + 7C6+ 7C7 = 35 + 21 + 7 + 1 = 64 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
14 (c) 
Let B alone can finish the same work in x days. 
So, A’s one day work = 1/18 
B’s one day work = 1/x 
C’s one day work = 1/12 
A, B and C together can finish the work in 4 days. 
So, A, B and C’s one day work = 1/4 
According to the question, 
⇒ [(1/18) + (1/x) + (1/12)] = 1/4
⇒ [{(2 + 3)/36} + (1/x)] = 1/4
⇒ 1/x = (1/4) – (5/36)
⇒ 1/x = 4/36 = 1/9
⇒ x = 9 days
Thus, B alone can finish the work in 9 days.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
15 (c) 
Capacity of the tank = L.C.M. of 16 and 20 = 80 units 
Capacity of half-filled tank = 80/2 = 40 units 
Efficiency of first pump = 80/16 = 5 
Efficiency of second pump = 80/20 = 4 
Time taken to fill the half-filled tank = 40/(5 + 4) = 40/9 min 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
16 (a) 
Number of people using car and bicycle = (23 + 11)% = 34% 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
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17 (d) 
Number of literate females in 2001 = 20000 × 11/100 = 2200 
And, number of literate females in 2011 = 24000 × 31/100 = 240 × 31 = 7440 
Hence, required difference = 7440 – 2200 = 5240 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
18 (b) 
Statement 1 is incorrect as the passage does not talk about the carbon emission from other countries. 
Thus, it is an incorrect assumption as it is beyond the scope of the passage. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions the impact of heat waves and sea level rise due to global 
warming, but does not touch upon precipitation. So, we cannot assume whether the precipitation in India 
will increase or decrease. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect. 
Statement 3 is correct as the passage mention,” By 2030, India would also ensure 50% of its energy will 
be from renewable energy sources. However, none of this can help the 1.5°C mark from being breached.” 
Despite India taking the right measures, the global temperature would still rise. It also calls for the 
adoption of adaptation measures in lines “Experience has shown that partisan economic calculations 
trump climate considerations, but India must shore up its adaptation measures and urgently move to 
secure the futures of its many vulnerable who have the most to lose.” All these points are effectively 
captured in this answer option. 
19 (b) 
Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “A major point of emphasis of the report, particularly for 
South Asia, is the trend in the ‘wet bulb’ ……. This will have consequences such as a rise in heatwave-
linked deaths or reduced productivity.” Also, it is common sense to note that natural disasters lead to loss 
of lives and an increase in coastal flooding may also contribute to this. So, the statement is correct. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions,” India is one of the most vulnerable countries in terms 
of the population that will be affected by sea-level rise. By the middle of the century, around 35 million of 
its people could face annual coastal flooding…” So, there will be an increase (not decline) in coastal 
flooding. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage does not mention the impact of climate change on agricultural 
production. So, this statement goes beyond the scope of the passage. 
Statement 4 is correct. The passage mentions, "This will have consequences such as a rise in heatwave 
linked deaths or reduced productivity." Thus, there is a serious risk of a decline in labour productivity due 
to an increase in temperatures, making it unsuitable for people to work optimally. 
20 (c) 
Option (a) is incorrect. Author disapproves the attitude of competition and envy. Author says, it is 
unfortunate that this attitude is widespread all over the world. But author does not indicate that this 
attitude is the root cause of all problems in the world. 
Option (b) is incorrect. The author says, this attitude (competitive), is present throughout the world. 
Again, this does not indicate that this is an innate (from the time of birth) nature of human beings. Rather, 
the author is trying to suggest the opposite. Author says, this attitude is ‘built’ in the childhood and it 
continues to grow thereafter. 
Option (c) is the correct inference. Author says, “…key to our self-worth is measured in relation to other 
people”. The passage, in general, and this statement, in particular, has a slightly negative stand on 
competition. Hence, it is correct to infer that competitive attitude may not always be ethical. 
Option (d) is also incorrect. Author mentions several instances to highlight the ‘other’ side of competition. 
However, she stops short of touching upon whether system of competition should be abolished. 
21 (d) 
If the number of rows and columns is equal, then the total number of laddoos should be a perfect square. 
As 1760 is not a perfect square, then we have to find a perfect square nearest to 1760, which is 1764. 1764 
is square of 42. So, he needs to add 4 more laddoos to get to 1764. 
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 
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22 (b) 
Let x, y and z be three co-prime numbers. 
According to the question, 
xy = 459 & yz = 621 
Since, y is the common number in xy and yz. So, y will be the H.C.F of xy and yz. 
H.C.F of 459, 621 = 27
Therefore, y = 27
Now, x = 459/y = 459/27 = 17
z = 621/y = 621/27 = 23
So, Sum of these three co-prime numbers = x + y + z = 17 + 27 + 23 = 67
Hence, option (b) is correct.
23 (b) 
We basically have to find the L.C.M of the given fractions: 5/18, 8/9, 10/27 
L.C.M of fractions = L.C.M. of numerators/H.C.F. of denominators
= L.C.M of (5, 8, 10) / H.C.F of (18, 9, 27) = 40/9
Hence, option (b) is correct.
24 (b) 
Let Dance = A, and Drama = B 
Both Dance and Drama = C 
According to the question, 
A + C = 93 --------(1) 
B + C = 74 ---------(2) 
On adding eqn. (1) and eqn. (2) , we get: 
A + 2C + B = 167 
But, A + B + C = 100 
∴ (A + B + C) + C = 167 
Or 100 + C = 167 
Or C = 67 
So, 67% of the students participated in both. 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
25 (a) 
Let Rahul has x toffees. 
Now, according to the question, 
{x - (8/3)} × (21/2) = (7/2) x 
or, (21/2)x - 28 = (7/2) x 
or, (21/2) x - (7/2) x = 28 
or, (14/2) x = 28 
or, x = 28/7 = 4 
So, Rahul has 4 toffees. 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
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26 (c) 
18 tractors can finish a work in 12 days. 
So, 1 tractor can finish the same work in 18×12 days. 
So, efficiency of a tractor = 1/(18×12) 
12 backhoe loaders can finish the same work in 9 days. 
So, 1 backhoe loader can finish the same work in 12×9 days. 
So, efficiency of a backhoe loader = 1/(12×9) 
Required ratio = 1/(18×12):1/(12×9) = (12×9):(18×12) = 1:2 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
27 (c) 
A = {x:1<x<6, x∈N} 
i.e. A = {2, 3, 4, 5}
Similarly, B = {y:2<y<9, y∈N}
i.e. B = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
So, (A∩B) = {3, 4, 5}
Hence, option (c) is correct.
28 (b) 
It’s given that, 60% students failed in GS. It means that 40% students must have passed in the GS paper. 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
29 (b) 
Let the time taken by pipes X and Y to fill the tank individually be x minutes and y minutes respectively. 
When one-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe Y and the remaining three-fourth is filled by pipe X, then 
x (3/4) + y (1/4) = 35 
or 3x + y = 35 × 4 = 140 …………(i) 
When one-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe X and the remaining three-fourth of the tank is filled by pipe 
Y, then 
x (1/4) + y (3/4) = 25 
or x + 3y = 25 × 4 = 100 ……………(ii) 
Multiplying equation (ii) by 3, we get: 
3x + 9y = 300 …………(iii) 
Subtracting equation (i) from equation (iii), we get: 
8y = 160 
or y = 20 
Putting value of y in equation of (i), we get: 
3x + 20 = 140 
or 3x = 120 
or x = 40 
Thus, y = 20 minutes, x = 40 minutes 
Now, pipes X and Y together can fill the tank in [xy/(x+y)] = [(40 × 20)/(40 +20)] = 40/3 minutes 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
30 (a) 
Option (a) is correct. The passage mentions that due to globalization, investments moved to places where 
environmental regulations are lax, wages are low and labour standards are weak. But the issue of weak 
regulations has now started to impact western countries too. That’s why the G7 nations have taken some 
actions. So, this statement aptly captures the crux of the passage. 
Option (b) is incorrect. This option is mentioned in the passage as the passage mentions the flow of 
capital from democracy to countries under a strong regime, where all clearances are available at a ‘single 
window’. This is one of the several phases in the evolution of globalization - it is one of the facts; it is not 
the crux of the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect. 
Option (c) is incorrect. There is no discussion on the steps taken by the G7 nations. The passage only 
mentions that the G7 nations had taken some actions. Whether these actions involve restricting the flow of 
capital or not is not evident. Hence, this is not the crux of the passage. 
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Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions that Investments moved to places where environmental 
regulations are lax, wages are low, labour standards are weak, and dissent is answered with an iron fist. 
According to the author, globalisation-led flow of investments benefitted from the already lax labour laws. 
We cannot conclusively say the other way round – globalisation led to weakening of labour and wage 
standards. Also, developing countries have not been mentioned specifically in the passage. Hence, this 
answer option is incorrect. 
31 (a) 
Option (a) is correct. This is the correct option because it mentions the core idea of the passage. The 
lines “Asian cosmopolitanism had developed in regions which have to accommodate not just diversities 
but “radical diversities” that may prove to be dangerous if they are brought together in the same space.” 
Also, the passage mentions that members of one community can go to extraordinary lengths to help 
members of the other community. The passage is revolving around the theme of tolerance shown by Asian 
cosmopolitanism. Therefore, it properly captures the essence of the given passage. 
Option (b) is incorrect. This is an incorrect statement as the passage mentions that Asian 
cosmopolitanism accommodates differences and peculiarities in the practices of different communities. 
Also, we cannot infer from the passage that Asian cosmopolitanism is trying to create a common national 
identity. 
Option (c) is incorrect. This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions, “This has resulted in a 
unique form of cosmopolitanism where differences can be accommodated without pressuring members of 
one community to be like the other based on a notion of universal brotherhood.” So, Asian 
cosmopolitanism does not focus on removing the prejudices but on accommodating the differences 
sensibly. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect. 
Option (d) is incorrect. This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions, “…members of one 
community can go to extraordinary lengths to help members of the other community maintain their 
customary practices including their separate dining and dietary habits.” So, the tolerance of diversity is 
not at all superficial but is a result of mutual understanding. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect. 
32 (a) 
Statement 1 is correct. The lines “A history of clothing can do several things: it will introduce students 
to thinking more about what ‘dress codes’, and opposition to them, have done in the past, and what they 
signify”, show that students need the knowledge of clothing history to understand the society in a better 
manner. The dress codes symbolised and affirmed power structures. So, we can infer that clothing is a tool 
to understand the power structure in a historical context. Therefore, this inference is correct. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage does not mention that just by studying history, we can help to 
build greater civility and respect for differences. Tolerance requires practice and not just mere knowledge. 
Thus, this statement as inference is not correct. 
Statement 3 is correct. The lines “…dress codes symbolised and affirmed power structures ……Societal 
hierarchies were thus sustained and perpetuated” clearly reflects that the state controlled the power 
structure by prescribing people to follow the dress codes. The sentence “By using their power and even 
violence, states, religious authorities…” clearly makes a reference to states. Therefore, this inference is 
correct. 
33 (d) 
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is beyond the scope of the passage because the author nowhere 
mentions that people have stopped outdoor activities fearing the pandemic. It mentions that even in 
normal times, we know exercising is good for our health, but we don’t do it enough. So, the statement 
does not correctly reflect the crux of the passage. 
Option (b) is incorrect. This statement is correct, but is not the crux of the passage. As the passage is 
more concerned about the nature of the decision taken by the people and the impact of the pandemic on it. 
The impact of stress on memory and learning is a peripheral point made by the author to substantiate the 
core argument – decision making. 
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Chronic stress has a shrinking effect on the prefrontal 
cortex." It shows that it is chronic stress and not the virus itself that had caused a reduction in the size of 
the brain. Therefore, this answer option does not qualify to be the crux of the passage. 
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Option (d) is correct. The passage mentions, " Studies in behavioural science show that we don’t tend to 
make good decisions under stress. They have repeatedly shown that we often don’t make good decisions 
even in normal times.” The given lines show that the people were not making rational decisions even 
during the normal times, and they will make lesser rational decisions after the pandemic due to chronic 
stress. Also, the examples in the passage substantiate this point. Thus, this is the correct crux of the 
passage. 
 
34 (c) 
Expressing each of the numbers without the decimal, we get: 
0.240 × 1000 = 240 = 3×2×2×2×2×5 
0.060 × 1000 = 60 = 2×2×3×5 
0.018 × 1000 = 18 = 2×3×3 
So, HCF of 18, 60 and 240 is 6. 
Hence, HCF of 0.018, 0.060 and 0.240 = 6/1000 = 0.006 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
35 (a) 
Let the original number be x. 
∴ (x + 60) = x × 400/100 
 (x + 60) = 4x 
 4x – x = 60 
 3x = 60 
 x = 20 
Thus, original number is 20. 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
36 (c) 
From the figure, it is clear that: 
A = {a, b, e, f} 
B = {b, c, d, e} 
C = {d, e, f, g} 
So, (A∩C) = {e, f} 
And (A∩B) = {b, e} 
So, (A∩C) - (A∩B) = {e, f} - {b, e} = {f} 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
37 (b) 
We know that, 3600 = 100% 
Or 10 = (100/360)% 
Percentage expenditure on rent = (100/360) × 540 = 15% 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
38 (a) 
We know that 
Average of a, b, c ………., m consecutive even or old numbers = (a + m)/2 
Given, a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, ………, a + 12 
Required average = (a + a + 12)/2 = a + 6 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
39 (b) 
The number of people that have received only dose II and III = 214 – (30 + 10 + 80 + 9 + 20 + 45) = 214 - 
194 = 20 
So, Total number of people who received at least two doses of vaccine = 10 + 20 + 20 + 9 = 59 
Required percentage = (59/214) × 100 = 27.57% 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
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40 (a) 
Let two numbers be x and y. 
Then, according to the question, 
x + y = 40 
xy = 175 
Now, (x - y)2 = (x + y)2 - 4xy 
 (x - y)2 = (40)2 - (4 × 175) 
 (x - y)2 = 1600 - 700 
 (x - y)2 = 900 
So, x - y = 30 
Thus, difference of the two numbers will be 30. 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
41 (b) 
Assumption 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “Instead, let us induct more women so that each police 
station in the country has them in adequate numbers to attend to all citizens, including women victims and 
complainants.” It implies that, presently, police stations in the country do not have an adequate number of 
women cops. So this assumption is correct. 
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Let us stop applauding “all-woman police stations”, 
a meaningless symbolic gesture that is regressive, both conceptually and in practice.” The author has 
used strong words to imply that we must stop applauding all-woman police stations because it does not 
promote women empowerment on the ground. Also, it does not imply that if we stop applauding then it 
will be seen as progressive. So this assumption is incorrect. 
 
42 (c) 
Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “What do you do if you and your family have invested 
money and emotion in making you a doctor and you do not get enough marks to qualify for a government 
medical college? Many such students used to settle for a Bachelor in Dental Surgery degree.” It implies 
that there is a dearth of MBSS seats in India which leads to students joining either dental college or 
MBBS in a foreign university. So this statement is correct. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions government medical colleges but it nowhere mentions 
private medical colleges. So aspirants may want to join a foreign university instead of joining local private 
colleges. We do not know whether there is any lack of private medical colleges in India. So this statement 
is incorrect. 
Statement 3 is correct. The passage mentions, “A situation of high demand coupled with a student-
unfriendly system is designed for the entry of middlemen. As soon as you register with a coaching agency 
or the NEET results are out, you are bombarded with offers from agencies ensuring seats in Nepal, 
Mauritius, Ukraine, Russia, China and so on.” It implies high demand for an MBBS seat has led to the 
entry of middlemen for admission into foreign universities. So this statement is correct. 
Statement 4 is correct. The passage mentions, “What do you do if you and your family have invested 
money and emotion in making you a doctor and you do not get enough marks to qualify for a government 
medical college?” and “Parents are lured into spending their hard-earned savings by middlemen who 
paint a rosy picture of the scenario in these countries.” It implies the aspirations of the parents for an 
MBBS seat for their children have increased and they are willing to pay for a seat even in a foreign 
medical university. So this is a correct statement. 
Statement 5 is correct. The passage mentions, “Many such students used to settle for a Bachelor in 
Dental Surgery degree. This led to a mushrooming of dental colleges of dubious quality and India 
produced far more dental surgeons than were in demand. Subsequently, several of these colleges shut 
down. The only option then is to do MBBS in a country that one can afford.” It implies that shutting down 
dental colleges further reduced the scope for students for a degree in the medical field. That led them to 
search for medical seats in a foreign university. So, this statement is correct. 
 
43 (d) 
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage nowhere talks about the quality of study at foreign universities. So 
this option is completely beyond the scope of the passage. 
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage nowhere compares the standards of education between Indian and 
foreign universities. So this is an incorrect option. 
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Option (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Even after this, these students often fail to clear the 
foreign medical graduate examination — this has a pass rate of 15 per cent. Caught between parental 
pressure and an unfriendly system, the students have nowhere to go.” This line only talks about the plight 
of students after they fail to clear the exam. This nowhere means that it is the reason for less percentage of 
students clearing the foreign medical graduate examination. So this option is incorrect. 
Since, all options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect, option (d) is the correct answer. 
 
44 (c) 
We can represent the information given in the question in the form of the following diagram: 
 
Citizens who think neither cricket nor football is their national game = 100 – (70 + 10 + 15) = 5% 
5% corresponds to 3,00,000. 
Then, 100% will correspond to 300000 x 20, i.e. 60,00,000. 
Hence, the population of the country is 60,00,000. 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
45 (b) 
Dhaniram and Maniram can plough a field in 10 days; Maniram and Sukhiram can plough the same field 
in 15 days; and Sukhiram and Dhaniram can plough the same field in 20 days. 
Therefore, (Dhaniram + Maniram)’s one-day work = 1/10 
(Maniram + Sukhiram)’s one-day work = 1/15 
(Sukhiram + Dhaniram)’s one-day work = 1/20 
Or, 2(Dhaniram +Maniram + Sukhiram)’s one-day work = (1/10) + (1/15) + (1/20) = (13/60) 
Or (Dhaniram +Maniram + Sukhiram)’s one-day work = (13/ 120)So, (Dhaniram +Maniram + Sukhiram)’s 6-day work = 6 × (13/ 120) = 13/20 
Now, work done by (Maniram + Sukhiram) in 4 days = 4 × (1/15) = 4/15 
Remaining work = 1- {(13/20) + (4/15)} = 1 - (11/12) = 1/12 
This, remaining work is to be done by Sukhiram. 
Sukhiram’s one-day work = (Dhaniram + Maniram + Sukhiram)’s one-day work – (Dhaniram + 
Maniram)’s one-day work = (13/120) - (1/10) = 1/120 
So, time taken by Sukhiram to plough the remaining field = (1/12) / (1/120) = 10 days 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
46 (d) 
Let the number of pencils in the two boxes be 16x and 16y. 
Then according to the question, 
16x + 16y = 112 
Or 16 (x + y) = 112 
Or x + y = 7 --------- (1) 
(x, y) = (1, 6), (2, 5) or (3, 4) 
If x = 1, y = 6 
Then, difference between the number of pencils in the two boxes = |16 (x – y)| = |16 (1 – 6)| = 16 × 5 = 80 
If x = 2, y = 5 
Then, difference between the number of pencils in the two boxes = |16 (x – y)| = |16 (2 – 5)| = 16 × 3 = 48 
If x = 3 and y = 4 
Then, difference between the number of pencils in the two boxes = |16 (x – y)| = |16 (3 – 4)| = 16 × 1 = 16 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
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47 (c) 
468/192 = (22)68/(64×3) 
= 2136/(26×3) 
= (26×2130)/(26×3) 
= (26/26) × (2130/3) 
We will find the remainder of (2130/3) and in the end we will multiply that remainder by 26. 
21/3, Remainder = 2 
22/3, Remainder = 1 
23/3, Remainder = 2 ……………so on 
So, when odd power of 2 is divided by 3, we get remainder 2. 
& when even power of 2 is divided by 3, we get remainder 1. 
Therefore, in 2130/3 we will get a remainder of 1, because power is an even number. 
So, required remainder = 1×26 = 64 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
48 (c) 
Let the original fraction be x/y 
According to the question, 
x is 100% and then it’s increased by 400%. So, it becomes 500% 
y is 100% and then it’s increased by 350%. So, it becomes 450%. 
Resultant fraction = (x×500%)/(y×450%) = 11/45 
Or x/y = (11×450)/(45×500)= 11/50 
Thus, original fraction is 11/50. 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
49 (b) 
If we consider the whole expense as 1 then, 
Fraction of the expenditure spent on labour =1 - (1/6 + 1/3 + 1/10) 
= 1 – [(5 + 10 + 3)/30] 
= 1 - 18/30 
= 12/30 
= 2/5th part 
As total expense = Rs.142400 
∴ Expense on labor = (2/5) × 142400 = Rs. 56960 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
50 (a) 
Let Anjal’s efficiency = Ae 
Pranjal’s efficiency = Pe 
And Karan’s efficiency = Ke 
Efficiency of Pranjal, Pe = 2 × efficiency of Karan = 2Ke 
Efficiency of Prnajal and Anjal = 1/10 
So, Ae + Pe = 1/10 
But, Pe = 2Ke. So, we get: 
Ae + 2Ke = 1/10 ……………(1) 
Efficiency of Anjal and Karan = 1/15 
So, Ae + Ke = 1/15 
Or 2Ae + 2Ke = 2/15 ……………(2) 
Eq. (2) - Eq. (1): 
2Ae + 2Ke - Ae - 2Ke = 2/15 – 1/10 = 1/30 
Or Ae = 1/30 
Hence, Anjal alone can finish the same work in 30 days. 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
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51 (a) 
Option (a) is correct. The passage mentions, “When women are empowered, the battle to eradicate 
poverty is more fruitful. Studies conducted in various nations have proven that there is a direct 
correlation between greater gender diversity and higher GDPs.” And “By empowering women, we 
increase their right to economic resources, as well as their decision-making powers. This, in turn, benefits 
their households and their communities. Women begin investing more in their children’s education, the 
quality of human capital improves, and we as a nation reap the benefits of economic prosperity.” It 
implies that by empowering women, the social development, i.e. eradicating poverty, increasing their 
decision-making powers, higher investment in children’s education, an improvement in quality of human 
capital etc., of society takes place. As a part of economic development, the GDP will increase and their 
right to economic resources will also increase. So this is the option that best reflects the central idea of the 
passage. Therefore, this is the correct answer. 
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Studies conducted in various nations have proven that 
there is a direct correlation between greater gender diversity and higher GDPs.” It implies that women's 
empowerment tends to lead to growth in GDP. But the option talks only about GDP and leaves out other 
social and economic benefits. So the statement is true but it does not best reflect the central idea of the 
passage. So this option is incorrect. 
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that women's empowerment is a must (a 
necessary pre-condition) for the socio-economic development of a nation. There is no indication that the 
socio-economic development will take place only when women are empowered. It only mentions a 
correlation between greater gender diversity and higher GDPs. So this option is incorrect. 
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “By empowering women, we increase their right to 
economic resources, as well as their decision-making powers. This, in turn, benefits their households and 
their communities.” It implies women's empowerment leads to their social and economic development. So 
this statement is true. However, this statement only talks about the development of women, while option 
(a) talks about society and nation that includes everyone. So this option does not best reflect the central 
idea of the passage in comparison to option (a). So this option is incorrect. 
 
52 (c) 
Statement 1 is correct. Human capital is the stock of skill and productive knowledge embodied 
in people. The passage mentions, “The quality of human capital improves, and we as a nation reap the 
benefits of economic prosperity.” It implies by improving human capital or resource we can reap the 
benefits of economic prosperity. So this statement is correct. 
Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions, “Women begin investing more in their children’s 
education, the quality of human capital improves, and we as a nation reap the benefits of economic 
prosperity.” It implies that increasing education among children can ultimately lead to reaping the 
benefits of economic prosperity. So, this statement is correct. 
 
53 (a) 
Option (a) is correct. According to the passage, the “Sunshine Protection Act” will make daylight saving 
time (DST) permanent. It will put a stop on the practice of turning the clocks back. The statement “The 
key argument is that DST is meant to save energy” makes it amply clear that the act is intended for energy 
conservation. Hence it is the correct answer. 
Option (b) is not correct. It is nowhere mentioned in the passage that the passed legislation will be used 
to harness Solar Energy i.e. transforming solar energy into other forms of energies. The aim of this 
legislation is to maximise the usage of day light. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
Option (c) is not correct. The passage says that the passed legislation will replace the practice of 
resetting of clocks ahead by an hour in spring and behind by an hour in autumn. The indication is towards 
modifying the working hours. There is no indication towards the place of work – office or home. Hence, it 
is not the correct answer. 
 
54 (c) 
HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators/LCM of denominators 
So, HCF of 4/5, 8/15, 2/25 = (HCF of 4, 8, 2)/(LCM of 5, 15, 25) = 2/75 
LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators/HCF of numerators 
So, LCM of 4/5, 8/15, 2/25 = (LCM of 4, 8, 2)/(HCF of 5, 15,25) = 8/5 
Hence, required product = (2/75) × (8/5) = 16/375 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
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55 (d) 
Let marks got by Subhi in Science, Geography and English be S, G and E respectively. 
Given, E = 60. Then, according to the question, 
Marks got by Subhi in Science, S = (E + G)/2 + 20 = (60 + G)/2 + 20 = G/2 + 50 
So, it is clear that marks obtained in geography cannot be determined. 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
56 (a) 
We have 5x + (1/x) = 4 …..(i) 
f(x) = 125x3 + 1/x3 = (5x)3 + 1/x3 = (5x + 1/x)3 – 3 × 5x × (1/x) (5x + 1/x) 
[a3 + b3 = (a + b)3 – 3 ab (a + b)] 
Using (i), we get: 
f(x) = (4)3 – 3 × 5 × 4 = 64 – 60 = 4 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
57 (b) 
From chart it is clear that expense on diet = 24% 
Expense on gym membership = 32% 
Required Ratio = 24:32 = 3:4 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
58 (d) 
Average marks of A, B and C are 650. Marks of B are 50 more than A, and marks of C are 20 less than A. 
B = A + 50, C = A – 20 
According to the question, 
 [A + B + C]/3 = 650 
or A + B + C = 1950 
or A + (A + 50) + (A – 20) = 1950 (Since, B = A + 50, C = A – 20) 
or 3A + 30 = 1950 
or 3A = 1920 
or A = 1920/3 = 640 
So, C = A – 20 = 640 – 20 = 620 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
59 (b) 
Total number of people = 80 
Number of people who drink wine = 33 
So, Number of people who drink only soda = 80 – 33 = 47 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
60 (a) 
Let the new average contribution of 10 people be x kgs. 
Then, according to the question, 
[450 × 9 + (x + 450)]/10 = x 
⇒ [4050 + 450 + x)]/10 = x 
⇒ (4500/10) + (x/10) = x 
⇒ 450 = x - (x/10) 
⇒ 450 = 9x/10 
⇒ x = 4500/9 
⇒ x = 500 
So, average contribution of 10 people is 500 kg. 
So, Total contribution of 10 people = 10 × 500 = 5000 kg 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
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61 (d) 
Numbers are in the ratio of 41:47:53. 
Let these three numbers be 41x, 47x, 53x. 
Given, HCF = 4 
So, x = 4 
So, required numbers are: 
1st number = 41x = 41 × 4 = 164 
2nd number = 47x = 47 × 4 = 188 
3rd number = 53x = 53 × 4 = 212 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
62 (a) 
Percentage of people in 60+ age group = 12% 
Percentage of people in 18-30 age group = 14% 
Given, number of people in 60+ age group = 48 
So, 12% = 48 
And so, 14% = (48/12) × 14 = 56 
Hence, option (a) is correct. 
 
63 (c) 
Statement (a) is not correct. Though the statement is correct in absolute sense, but it does not reflect the 
critical message of the passage. The passage revolves around the argument of why the Constitution needs 
to be translated, whereas this answer option focusses on the academician and his project realisation. 
Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
Statement (b) is not correct. The author is clear about the benefits of translating the Constitution. The 
last line of the passage makes it amply clear. There is no indication towards the cost-benefit analysis of 
translating the Constitution. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
Statement (c) is correct. It is a correct statement and best reflects the critical message of the passage. As 
the passage mentions that for a historically deprived community and its people, the translation of 
Constitution will help them understand their rights and the provisions of the Constitution. Hence, it is the 
correct answer. 
Statement (d) is not correct. The passage mentions that translation of the Constitution is available in 
multiple languages. It is not the correct answer as the passage revolves around the argument of why 
translation is needed in other languages. Whether or not the Constitution is already available in multiple 
languages is not the core message of the passage. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
 
64 (a) 
Statement (a) is correct. The entire passage revolves around the central argument that climate change 
will deteriorate the carbon storing capacity of peatland. As the peatlands exist as a frozen permafrost, an 
increase in temperature will melt the ice and hence the stored carbon will be lost in the atmosphere. 
Hence, it is the correct answer. 
Statement (b) is not correct. According to the passage Frozen wetlands in Europe and western Siberia 
store up to 39 billion tonnes of carbon. This is equivalent to twice that is held by the whole of European 
forests. The statement is correct in absolute sense, but the central idea of the passage revolves around the 
argument that global warming will degrade carbon holding capacity of peatlands. Hence, it does not best 
reflect the critical message of the passage. 
Statement (c) is not correct. The passage does mention that waterlogged conditions prevent microbial 
decay of plants. It is evident from the line “Waterlogged conditions limit microbial decay of dead plant 
materials rich in carbon dioxide.” But it does not reflect the critical message of the passage. It is just a 
peripheral point made by the author to lend support to the core argument – impact of climate change on 
carbon storing capacity of peatland. Hence, it is not a correct answer. 
Statement (d) is not correct. it is nowhere mentioned in the passage that peatlands are found all over the 
world. Hence, this answer option is completely beyond the scope of the passage. 
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65 (c) 
Statement 1 is correct. According to the passage, peatlands are a type of wetlands flooded with water. It 
is evident from the line “Peatlands are a class of wetlands…” Hence it is a correct statement. 
Statement 2 is correct: According to the passage “Huge stocks of peat carbon have been protected for 
millennia by frozen conditions, but once those conditions become unsuitable, all that stored carbon can be 
lost very quickly.” Hence, it would be correct to say that ice protects peatland from degradation. 
 
66 (d) 
Statement 1 is not correct. Refer to the line “…shows that people’s sense of safety and security is at a 
low in almost every country, including the richest countries.” According to the passage people’s sense of 
security is low in all countries - rich and poor. We cannot establish any relationship between development 
and security. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
Statement 2 is not correct. Refer to the line: “…global life expectancy at birth is falling for a second 
year because of COVID-19.” According to the passage the life expectancy at birth is falling due to the 
Covid-19 pandemic globally. It not limited to some countries only. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 
 
67 (a) 
Statement 1 is correct: According to the passage, people’s sense of security is low in almost every 
country, which includes the richest countries which have seen growth and development in past few 
decades. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to the passage, climate change is “likely” to become a leading cause 
of death around the world. It is clear from the line: “Even with moderate mitigation of emissions, some 40 
million people might die because of changes in temperatures before the end of the century”. However, we 
cannot infer from this that it will definitely cause “most” number of deaths. 
 
68 (c)Let the numbers be x and y, where x > y. 
So, x - y = 6 
And x2 + y2 = 1476 
Now, x2 + y2 = (x – y)2 + 2xy 
So, 1476 = 62 + 2xy 
 1476 = 36 + 2xy 
 2xy = 1476 – 36 = 1440 
 xy = 1440/2 = 720 
So, product of these two numbers is 720. 
As we know that, LCM × HCF = product of two numbers 
So, 120 × HCF = 720 
Or HCF = 720/120 = 6 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
69 (c) 
Let Qasim’s age be x. 
According to the question, 
∴ x + 22 = x × 125/100 
Or x + 22 = 5x/4 
Or (5x/4) – x = 22 
Or x/4 = 22 
Or x = 88 
Thus, Qasim’s age is 88 years. 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
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70 (d) 
Total number of commandos = 20 
Number of commandos which have a gun = n(G) = 8 
Number of commandos which have a knife = n(K) = 10 
Number of commandos which have neither a knife nor a gun = 5 
Number of commandos which have either a knife or a gun = 20 – 5 = 15 
n(G∪K) = n (G) + n (K) – n(G∩K) 
or 15 = 8 + 10 - n(G∩K) 
or n(G∩K) = 18 – 15 = 3 
 So, 3 commandos have both a knife and a gun . 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
71 (c) 
Efficiency of Abhishek = 1/20 
Efficiency of Vipul = 1/40 
Total efficiency of Abhishek and Vipul = (1/20 + 1/40) = 3/40 
If both are working together, the work will be completed in 40/3 = 13.33 days 
Thus, the work will get completed on the 14th day. 
Hence, option (c) is correct. 
 
72 (b) 
Let the number be x. 
According to the question, 
5x3 = 15x2 
Or 5x = 15 
Or x = 3 
∴ The required number is 3. 
Hence, option (b) is correct. 
 
73 (d) 
Let the original number be 'a', the divisor be 'd', and the quotient obtained on dividing 'a' by 'd' be 'x'. 
Therefore, a = dx + 24 
Twice the original number is divided by 'd' means 2a is divided by d. 
2a = 2(dx + 24) = 2dx + 48 
When (2dx + 48) is divided by 'd' the remainder is 11. 
2dx is divisible by 'd' and will therefore, not leave a remainder. The remainder of 11 would be the 
remainder obtained on dividing 48 by d. The question essentially becomes "What number will leave a 
remainder of 11 when it divides 48?" 
When 37 divides 48, the remainder is 11. 
Hence, option (d) is correct. 
 
74 (d) 
Let the numbers be a and b. 
Given is a + b = 100 and a − b = 37 
So, a² − b² = (a + b) (a − b) = 100 × 37 = 3700. 
 
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75 (a) 
(6 × √5
3
 )3 = 216 × 5 = 1080 
(8 × √2
3
 )3 = 512 × 2 = 1024 
(2 × √130
3
)3 = 8 × 130 = 1040 
(√900
3
)3 = 900 
 
76 (c) 
D = 0. a b a b a b ... 
And 100D = ab. a b a b a b ... 
So, 99D = ab 
or, D = a b/99 . 
So, D must be multiplied by 198, as 198 is a multiple of 99. 
Hence, the correct option is (c). 
 
77 (b) 
From II, b = 2d 
Hence, b = 10, d = 5 or b = 4, d = 2 
From III, e + a = 10 or e + a = 4 
e + a = 4 is not possible. So, e + a = 10 
So, e, a = 4 or 6 
From I, a + c = e or e − a = c 
So, c = 2 
From III and I, we get, 2e = 10 + c = 12 
or e = 12/2 = 6 
So, a = 4 
So, a = 4, b = 10, c = 2, d = 5, e = 6 
 
78 (d) 
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the passage both the approaches overlap to a considerable extent. 
Both have a much more optimistic view of human nature and share the view that growing interdependence 
will strengthen the institutions of regional cooperation. However, it would be an exaggeration to say that 
both approaches overlap completely. Hence, it is not a correct statement. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. Interdependence theorist emphasise the importance of non-state actors such as 
multinational corporations and their role in shaping the world where military power has become less 
relevant and to some extent irrelevant for establishing relations between countries. Therefore, 
Interdependence theorist are supportive (not critical) of multinational corporations. Hence, it is not a 
correct answer. 
Statement 3 is correct. According to the passage evolving interdependence will create stronger 
institutions of regional cooperation which will create greater opportunities for strengthening the United 
Nations and developing mechanisms of world governance. It is evident from the line: “…that growing 
interdependence will strengthen the institutions of regional cooperation and open up greater 
opportunities for strengthening the United Nations and developing mechanisms of world governance.” 
Hence, it is the correct answer. 
 
79 (b) 
Statement (a) is incorrect. Though the passage says that Ghalib witnessed the rise of British, we cannot 
infer that he foresaw their rise. Moreover, even the argument that Ghalib witnessed the rise of British is a 
part of the passage which focusses on how the British got scope and expanded in India. Hence, it is not a 
correct answer. 
Statement (b) is correct. Refer to the line: “…the Indo-Gangetic plain, once ruled by a single monarch, 
was now split between contending chiefdoms and armies. Brother was fighting brother…” It is clear that 
weak monarchy and fighting chiefdoms weakened the federation and unity. Hence, it gave scope of 
expansion to British. The passage further explains how the British further acquired greater part of the 
Indian Sub-continent. Hence it is the correct answer. 
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Statement (c) is not correct. According to the passage during the mutiny, Delhi did witness a large 
bloodshed during the mutiny. However, the passage is silent on the looting aspect, which seems rather too 
specific. Hence it is not the correct answer. 
Statement (d) is not correct. The passage does not talk about the vision of nationalists. Also, it cannot be 
the crux of the passage. 
 
80 (a) 
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is mentioned in the passage that Delhi was the home town of Ghalib and 
Indo-Gangetic plain was his home territory. But it is nowhere mentioned in the passage that he was born 
in Delhi. It is probable, within the limits of this passage, that he was born elsewhere and later moved to 
Delhi. Hence it is not the correct answer. 
Statement 2 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage that a large section of the native people rose up 
against British. The colonial powers called it the Sepoy Mutiny, and Indian nationalists later referred to as 
the First War of Indian Independence. So, there was different interpretations of the revolt. Hence it is a 
correct statement. 
Statement 3 is correct. It is clearly mentioned in the passage, Delhi was the capital of the Mughals and 
later become the capital of the British Raj as well. It is evident from the line: “Some of the bloodiest 
fighting was in Ghalib’s home town, Delhi – still nominally the capital of the Mughals and in time to 
become the capital of the British Raj as well.” Hence, it is a correct statement. 
 
 
 
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