AZ-802 Administering Windows Server PDF Dumps

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Exam : AZ-802
Title :
https://www.passcert.com/AZ-802.html
Administering Windows
Server (beta)
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1.A Group Policy Object is linked at the domain level and applies settings to all users. A second GPO
linked to a specific Organisational Unit (OU) applies conflicting settings for users in that OU.
Which GPO settings apply to users in the OU?
A. The OU-level GPO settings apply for the conflicting settings because OU GPOs have higher
precedence than domain GPOs in a non-enforced scenario.
B. The domain-level GPO settings always win because they are applied first and have higher
precedence.
C. The settings are applied randomly depending on the order Group Policy processes the GPOs.
D. Both GPOs merge and the most restrictive settings from each are applied.
Answer:
2.Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) restricts which applications can execute on a Windows
Server.
Which enforcement mode runs application control checks but does not block applications, allowing
administrators to identify issues before enforcement?
A. Audit mode which logs blocked applications in the event log without preventing their execution.
B. Passive mode which requires manual administrator confirmation before blocking each application.
C. Monitor mode which uses Windows Defender AV scanning to flag unapproved applications.
D. Block mode which actively prevents all unapproved applications from running immediately.
Answer: A
3.Windows Server Migration Tools (WSMT) assist in migrating roles and features from older servers to
newer versions.
Which migration scenario is supported by WSMT?
A. Migrating an on-premises physical server to an Azure VM using agentless replication.
B. Migrating a Windows Server role such as DHCP or File Services along with its configuration and data
from a source server to a destination server.
C. Migrating a virtual machine between two Hyper-V hosts in a live migration operation.
D. Migrating Active Directory from Windows Server 2016 to Windows Server 2025 by upgrading the
domain functional level.
Answer: B
4.Windows Server 2025 introduces SMB over QUIC as a file sharing transport.
What security advantage does this provide compared to traditional SMB over TCP?
A. It replaces SMB encryption entirely, eliminating the need for SMB signing and sealing.
B. It allows SMB file access over the internet or untrusted networks without requiring a VPN by using
TLS 1.3 encryption natively in the QUIC transport layer.
C. It increases SMB throughput by using UDP instead of TCP and removing encryption overhead.
D. It restricts SMB access to clients running Windows 11 and Windows Server 2025 only.
Answer: B
5.Storage Spaces Direct (S2D) creates hyperconverged or disaggregated storage clusters using locally
attached drives.
Which resiliency type provides tolerance for two simultaneous drive failures?
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A. Simple (no resiliency) which striped data across drives without any fault tolerance.
B. Three-way mirror which maintains three copies of data and can tolerate two simultaneous drive or
server failures.
C. Two-way mirror which maintains two copies of data tolerating only one drive failure at a time.
D. Parity space which provides better capacity efficiency than mirror but only tolerates one failure in a
standard parity tier.
Answer: B
6.Azure Auto manage automates best practice configuration for Windows Server VMs.
Which configuration profile applies security hardening, backup, and monitoring with settings optimised
for production workloads?
A. Production profile which enables Azure Backup, Azure Monitor, Defender for Cloud, and security
baselines appropriate for production workloads.
B. Custom profile which requires the administrator to specify every setting individually.
C. Azure Security Benchmark profile which only applies security baselines without backup.
D. Dev/Test profile which applies lightweight settings suitable for non-production environments.
Answer: A
7.Active Directory Sites and Services is used to manage AD replication topology.
What is the primary purpose of creating site links with appropriate costs?
A. To prevent domain controllers from replicating with each other entirely.
B. To assign IP subnets to sites so that clients locate nearby domain controllers.
C. To encrypt replication traffic between domain controllers in different sites.
D. To define preferred replication paths and schedules between sites so that AD replication uses efficient
WAN links and avoids saturating slower connections.
Answer: D
8.Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) provides managed domain services in Azure.
What is a key difference between Azure AD DS and a traditional on-premises AD DS domain?
A. Azure AD DS supports creating Organisational Units and Group Policy Objects directly within the
managed domain.
B. Azure AD DS requires an on-premises domain controller to be running at all times for the managed
domain to function.
C. Azure AD DS replicates bidirectionally with on-premises AD DS to maintain a single forest.
D. Azure AD DS is a one-way trust domain where Microsoft manages the domain controllers and schema
extensions are not supported.
Answer: D
9.Windows Server event forwarding uses Windows Event Collector to centralise event logs.
Which protocol does WEF use to transport events from source computers to the collector?
A. Syslog over UDP port 514 which is the standard protocol for Linux and network devic.
B. SNMP traps over UDP port 162 which forward event notifications to a management.
C. NetBIOS over TCP port 139 which provides legacy Windows event notification transport.
D. WS-Management (WS-Man) over HTTP or HTTPS using the Windows Remote Management service.
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Answer: D
10.Azure Migrate provides assessment and migration tools.
Which Azure Migrate tool performs agentless discovery and assessment of on-premises VMware VMs
without installing software on each VM?
A. Azure Migrate: Server Assessment tool using the Azure Migrate appliance deployed as a lightweight
VM in the VMware environment.
B. Azure Arc which discovers and inventories VMs when the Connected Machine agent is installed on
each VM.
C. Azure Site Recovery which discovers VMs through the Hyper-V or VMware vCenter API.
D. Microsoft Defender for Cloud which scans the VMware environment and produces a migration
readiness report.
Answer: A
11.DFS Namespaces provide a unified naming structure for shared folders.
Which DFS Namespace type stores namespace metadata in Active Directory and supports multiple
namespace servers for high availability?
A. Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) which replicates file content between servers.
B. Standalone DFS Namespace which stores metadata in the registry of a single server.
C. Domain-based DFS Namespace which stores metadata in AD DS and supports multiple namespace
servers for redundancy.
D. Azure File Sync namespace which extends on-premises namespaces to Azure Blob Storage.
Answer: C
12.Selective authentication on a forest trust restricts which users from the trusted forest can authenticate
to resources in the trusting forest.
What must be configured on the resource server to grant access to specific trusted users?
A. A DNS delegation that allows the trusting forest's DNS to resolve the trusted forest's domains.
B. A site link bridge between the two forest sites to allow authentication traffic to flow.
C. A Selective Authentication group policy applied at the domain level of the trusting forest.
D. The Allowed to Authenticate permission granted to the specific trusted users or groups on the
resource server's computer object in the trusting domain.
Answer: D
13.PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) can enforce server configurations to prevent
configuration drift.
Which componentvalidates the server configuration against the DSC definition on a schedule?
A. The Local Configuration Manager (LCM) on each server which applies and monitors DSC
configurations at a configured refresh interval.
B. The Windows Remote Management service which executes DSC scripts when invoked remotely.
C. The Task Scheduler service which runs DSC scripts stored in the System32 directory.
D. Azure Policy Guest Configuration which replaces the LCM for all Windows Server DSC scenarios.
Answer: A
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14.iSCSI Target Server is a Windows Server role that presents block storage over a TCP/IP network.
Which component on the initiator side connects to the iSCSI target and presents it as a local disk?
A. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator which discovers, connects to, and presents iSCSI targets as local block
devices.
B. Server Message Block (SMB) client which connects to shared folders over TCP port 445.
C. Windows Network File System (NFS) client which mounts network file shares as drive letters.
D. Multipath I/O (MPIO) which is required to connect to iSCSI targets and balances traffic across paths.
Answer: A
15.Windows Server 2025 supports Secured-core Server which combines hardware and firmware security
features.
Which component validates the integrity of firmware and boot components before the OS loads?
A. Windows Hello for Business which provides certificate-based authentication for server administrators.
B. Windows Defender Application Control which restricts which applications can run on the server.
C. Secure Boot which uses a certificate-based chain of trust to verify firmware and bootloader signatures
before the OS kernel starts.
D. BitLocker Drive Encryption which protects the OS drive from offline access.
Answer: C
16.Performance Monitor and Resource Monitor are built-in Windows Server tools.
Which tool provides real-time visibility into which specific process is consuming the most disk I/O
bandwidth at a given moment?
A. Reliability Monitor which tracks hardware and software failure events over time.
B. Event Viewer which logs disk-related events with process details.
C. Windows Admin Center Performance tool which shows aggregated server performance metrics.
D. Resource Monitor (resmon) which shows per-process disk read and write rates in real time.
Answer: D
17.Scheduled tasks on Windows Server can be managed remotely using PowerShell.
Which cmdlet retrieves all scheduled tasks on a remote server named SVR01?
A. Get-Process -ComputerName SVR01 which lists running processes on the remote server.
B. Invoke-Command -ComputerName SVR01 -ScriptBlock {Get-ScheduledTask} which runs the cmdlet
remotely via PowerShell Remoting.
C. Get-ScheduledTask -CimSession (New-CimSession -ComputerName SVR01) which connects to the
remote server and retrieves all scheduled task definitions.
D. Get-Service -ComputerName SVR01 which retrieves Windows services on the remote server.
Answer: C
18.Log Analytics queries in Azure Monitor use KQL to analyse Windows Server event data.
Which query structure finds all Event ID 4625 (failed login) entries from a specific server in the last 24
hours?
A. SecurityEvent | where TimeGenerated > ago(24h) and EventID == 4625 and Computer == 'SVR01'
B. WindowsEvent | filter EventID = 4625 and Computer = SVR01 and Time > -24h.
C. AzureActivity | where OperationName == 'Login Failed' and TimeGenerated > ago(24h).
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D. Event | where EventID == '4625' and TimeGenerated > now() - 24h and Source == 'SVR01'.
Answer: A
19.Windows Server Core reduces the attack surface by removing the graphical shell.
Which tool provides a menu-driven console for configuring basic settings such as IP address, computer
name, and remote management on a Server Core installation?
A. Server Configuration tool (sconfig) which provides a text-based menu for core server settings on
Server Core installations.
B. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) which provides GUI-based management from a separate
workstation.
C. Device Manager which provides a graphical interface for hardware configuration.
D. Windows Admin Center which requires a browser connection to manage Server Core.
Answer: A
20.Azure Backup for Windows Server uses the MARS (Microsoft Azure Recovery Services) agent.
What backup scope does the MARS agent support?
A. SQL Server databases using VSS-aware application-consistent snapshots.
B. Hyper-V virtual machines by connecting to the host's VSS writer.
C. System state and individual files and folders stored on the local server volumes.
D. Full VM backup including all disks and configuration captured from the hypervisor layer.
Answer: C
21.Network Load Balancing (NLB) distributes incoming TCP/UDP traffic across multiple Windows Server
nodes.
In which scenario is NLB more appropriate than Windows Server Failover Clustering?
A. A file server cluster where multiple nodes access a shared volume simultaneously.
B. A Hyper-V Live Migration environment requiring coordinated VM movement between cluster nodes.
C. A SQL Server Always On Availability Group requiring automatic failover with shared database state.
D. A stateless web application hosted on multiple IIS servers where any node can handle any request
independently.
Answer: D
22.Shielded VMs in Windows Server use Host Guardian Service (HGS) to verify that VMs only run on
attested Hyper-V hosts.
What does attestation confirm?
A. That the Hyper-V host has sufficient RAM and CPU to run the requested Shielded VM configuration.
B. That the VM's virtual disks are encrypted with a key known to the guest OS.
C. That the network traffic from the VM is encrypted between the host and the HGS server.
D. That the Hyper-V host's firmware, boot configuration, and code integrity policy match a known-good
baseline trusted by HGS.
Answer: D